lee_merrill
New member
Hi Godrulz,
I agree that foreknowledge is not the primary basis on which God accomplishes his purposes.
How do we know the difference, though, how can we tell which promises and prophecies are sure, and which are estimates, which may be incorrect?
But what are the texts which show that the future is unknowable, from God's point of view?
Why isn't knowing a past decision absurd too, then? Why doesn't that knowledge make the choice not have been free? If merely knowing a decision makes it somehow not free…
Blessings,
Lee
Is. 46 and 48 are favorite texts of Open Theists. Read the verses in context carefully. The reason His purposes come to pass is due to His omnicompetence and ABILITY, not His supposed 'foreknowledge'.
I agree that foreknowledge is not the primary basis on which God accomplishes his purposes.
There are 2 motifs in Scripture. Some of the future is open and unknowable as a certainty/actuality until it happens. They are correctly known as possibilities before that (most free will mundane and moral choices). Some of the future is predestined and known, because God intends to bring certain things to pass, regardless of what man or Satan does or does not do.
How do we know the difference, though, how can we tell which promises and prophecies are sure, and which are estimates, which may be incorrect?
To only quote the last group of 'proof texts' and to ignore the other motif leads to an imbalanced view of predestination and foreknowledge.
But what are the texts which show that the future is unknowable, from God's point of view?
Foreknowing future contingencies is a logical contradiction/absurdity. Omnipotence is the ability to do all that is logically doable.
Why isn't knowing a past decision absurd too, then? Why doesn't that knowledge make the choice not have been free? If merely knowing a decision makes it somehow not free…
Blessings,
Lee