ECT MAD has no clue what "dispensation " means in scripture ! NONE
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The 12 sons of Jacob.
Hi and who are these Jew in Rev 7:3-8 ?
So , then Abraham and Isaac , are nothing as Jacob ??
dan p
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
That's not what the verse says
(John 1:11 KJV) He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
Christ Jesus was a Jew from the line of Judah. It was the Jews who rejected Him.
The lost sheep of the House of Israel were not Jews. That's who Jesus said He came for.
Ummm, the New Covenant was for the house of Judah and the house of Israel, collectively.
Are you suggesting Jesus Christ did not come for both houses collectively?
Why was He gathering Jews (of Judah) as His disciples if He was not sent for them?
Yep
Nope
The Jews of Judah were not divorced from God like the Israelites from the House of Israel were.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
:doh:
Both houses were guilty of the same offence --- playing the harlot.
Do you think GOD married two wives - one the house of Israel and the other the house of Judah?
When did GOD marry the house of Israel separate from the house of Judah, and when did GOD marry the house of Judah separate from the house of Israel?
Does not scripture say that who GOD has joined together, let no man separate?
How about:
Jeremiah 51 KJV
(5) For Israel hath not been forsaken, nor Judah of his God, of the LORD of hosts; though their land was filled with sin against the Holy One of Israel.
Ditto!
Yes, but God only divorced the House of Israel. God never divorced the House of Judah.
No, God married one wife (Israel). However, Israel split into two houses, and God treated each house as a wife, and each as sisters.
Read Ezekiel 23. Oholah, and her sister Oholibah represent Israel and Judah.
He didn't. See above.
Yes. No man separated the House of Israel, it was God who divorced her.
(Jer 3:8) I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries. .....
That has to do with the judgment on Babylon.
Babylon was punished for what they did to Judah and Israel.
Well hold on ....
Perhaps you can provide the scripture that says when GOD married His one wife.
Tell us again, did GOD marry one wife or two?
There were 3 children of the one wife.
One does not divorce children, one divorces a wife.
He only married one wife, not two.
Jeremiah 3:8 KJV(8) And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.
(Jer 31:32) It will not be like the covenant
I made with their ancestors
when I took them by the hand
to lead them out of Egypt,
because they broke my covenant,
though I was a husband to them,”
declares the Lord.
One
Don't know what you're talking about.
Maybe if you weren't so literal, you would understand better.
God didn't literally marry Israel. Israel is referred to as God's wife, yet in other passages, Israel is referred to as God's firstborn son. Israel is also referred to as an olive tree.
So, if we get real literal (like you Dispies), then God divorced His son, who was an olive tree.
Take of your literal Dispy hat, read the book of Hosea, and maybe you'll begin to understand the differences between the House of Israel and the House of Judah.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
:chuckle:
Israel is referred to as God's wife, and God's son; not to mention an Olive Tree.
You can't take any of the three literally.
Same thing for believers in Christ Jesus. We are referred to as sheep with Christ Jesus as the Shepherd, lively stones with Christ Jesus as the Cornerstone, and a body part, with Christ Jesus as the Head.
Oh wait......never mind......you guys take the body metaphor literally.......
Yes you do.
You tried to switch from 'wife' to 'children'.
And that is why you shouldn't switch from 'wife' to 'children'.
Yet you seem to take this "divorce" literally, as if GOD kept part of His wife that He married, but not the other part of His wife that He married.
If it was not really a divorce, but just metaphoric talk (which I agree with), then GOD never gave a real bill of divorce to His one wife that he married.
The one wife that He married (metaphorically) was all of Israel.
It's a metaphor Tam,
(Ezk 23:4) The older was named Oholah, and her sister was Oholibah. They were mine and gave birth to sons and daughters. Oholah is Samaria, and Oholibah is Jerusalem.
Samaria was the capital of the Northern Nation (House of Israel), and Jerusalem was the capital of the Southern Nation (House of Judah)
Read Ezk chapter 23, and you will see that the two sisters are a typology for Israel and Judah.
It's a metaphor. The two sisters are daughters of the same mother. In the metaphor the mother is Israel (all 12 tribes), and the daughters are the two houses (Israel & Judah).
Hosea makes it clear that God had no mercy on the House of Israel, scattered the House of Israel, and told the Israelites from the House of Israel that they were not a people. In Jeremiah, we are told that God divorced the House of Israel.
Both Judah and Israel are portrayed as sisters that God is married to. God only divorced Israel, not Judah.
Yes, but Israel split into two houses.
I don't know why you fight this so much? Ezekiel and Jeremiah make it clear that one day the two houses would be joined together again when the New Covenant was made.
God could not remarry Israel after He divorced her. That would have been an abomination according to Deuteronomy. The only way He could remarry her was by death. That's what happened. The New Covenant was made at the cross, and because of the death, God could remarry the wife He divorced.