I said, "that was for God to judge."
I have Scripture that tells me they did not go to Hell.
I agree. Even though the sacrificial system took away immediate judgement, it didn't remove the condemnation from the sinner's conscience. Only the blood of Jesus can do this. However, regarding the woman in Luke 7, it further proves that there was a grace at work apart from the law, which wouldn't make sense if Jesus was an enforcer of the law.
No, the grace worked within the law, though neither by, nor through it.
Right. However, while supposedly under the Mosaic law, Jesus forgave the woman's many sins. The Mosaic law was negated, and that means that faith laid hold of something that she would have been exempt from while under the law.
He forgave her sins, not her crimes. The Law was not negated. The Law did not make anyone exempt from grace.
This is what none of you mads are understanding, or more to the point, not wanting to understand.
You're a daft little punk, aren't ya?
He did not minister both :doh:
Grace is by faith, and law is by works. Both cannot coexist.
This right here proves you're a moron.
Jesus died for all sinners, who were all under the Law. In His infinite grace He died for them, though they were already condemned.
You know how so. I explained it plain enough.
You explained it like a pot head 15 minutes after 4:20.
Just as we do today.
John 5:24 "Most assuredly, I say to you, he who hears My word and believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and shall not come into judgment, but has passed from death into life.
If a person has everlasting life, the law can no longer have a claim on them. They are free from it's condemnation, as the woman was.
Where does the Bible say that?
One thing that should be remembered here is that the Law required the testimony of two or three witnesses to establish guilt. The witnesses all left without testifying against her. This allowed Jesus to not convict her and thereby escape the trap that the pharsiees had set for him since it was illegal under Roman rule to execute anyone without permission from the Roman authorities, all without violating the Law Himself.
Jesus was/is smarter than your average TOL participant.
Sure enough.
Do you believe when Jesus told the woman neither do I condemn you go and sin no more meant nothing ?
Did Jesus witness the adultery?
I do not ignore scripture and what you accuse me off is EXACTLY what your doing.
You IGNORE that Jesus said neither do I condemn you and :
Jhn 1:17
For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
Jesus was neither a witness to the adultery or a judge or priest. He was in no position to condemn here, according to the very Law He made.
Jesus was NOT bound by the LAW HE fulfilled the requirements of the LAW.
Moses bought the LAW but GRACE and TRUTH came by Jesus Christ.
Pretty dangerous ground placing restrictions on God in the flesh i.e. Jesus.
If you believe the LAW was so perfect why did Jesus say that God NEVER intended for their to be a writ of divorce but because of the hardness of their hearts God allowed it ?
Because their hearts were not perfect.
And Jesus was bound by anything He chose to be.
This incident happened on Old Testament ground just as much as if it had taken place under Moses.
Had Christ condemned her, He would have been guilty of breaking the Law by condemning only the woman and not the absent man -- an angle the Pharisees, hypocrites that they were, would have been sure to play up to denounce Him. Therefore, He did not condemn her. HE COULDN'T.
Had Christ forgiven her (assuming she'd even wanted to be forgiven, which does not seem to be the case), He would likewise have broken the Law for pronouncing her forgiven for something which under the Law could not be forgiven but required death. Therefore He did not forgive her. HE COULDN'T.
:thumb:
Could be that Madist are blinded by the error they believe and promote. Creating a Gospel that does not exists blinds folks to the truth of the ONE true Gospel.
Thanks, I must be doing it right . If a Madist agreed with any of my posts I would have to go back and re-study the scriptures because I would be worried I compromised the truth to follow a lie.
You are so full of yourself, as well as other things.
First of all, look what I stated a couple of days ago....
So far only Lighthouse had come up with a reason why Jesus could forgive a woman's many sins, even though she was supposedly bound to the law. The reason - simply because God can do what he wants. There's no other possible explanation for the madists to come up with. And so Clete for the FIRST time in this thread has had to agree with Lighthouse, and he becomes the second person.
Only Lighthouse had pointed it out before you now.
No, I said she exercised faith, and that is why He forgave her. And He could do so under the Law because He is the Lawgiver and supersedes the Law. And yet since the Law has no relation to the forgiveness of sin then Jesus forgiving sin while under the Law is not a problem.
An incident directly involving the Law took place.
Some here very patiently cite what the Law said on the matter in order to understand it.
Andy waves off the Law as irrelevant to the discussion because it won't let him arrive at the conclusion he's already reached.
Andy smacks into the trees when he's running in the forest.
Never mind the grand issue with a rapture as far as it actually occurring.
What happens to the people aboard a plane when the pilots whisk away into the heavens? I guess the people on the plane don't deserve a last shot chance at redemption like the fellows on the ground.
They get their last shot as the plane hurtles toward the ground.