Right Divider
Body part
I do NOT ignore that.... I believe it COMPLETELY.
Why did Jesus not condemn her? Because it would violate the LAW OF MOSES that Jesus and His kinsmen in the flesh were UNDER (that God/Christ gave to to Israel through Moses).
ECT Mad finds itself in the trash by applying simple logic
- Thread starter andyc
- Start date
Why did Jesus not condemn her? Because it would violate the LAW OF MOSES that Jesus and His kinsmen in the flesh were UNDER (that God/Christ gave to to Israel through Moses).
dodge
New member
Jesus was NOT bound by the LAW HE fulfilled the requirements of the LAW.
Moses bought the LAW but GRACE and TRUTH came by Jesus Christ.
Pretty dangerous ground placing restrictions on God in the flesh i.e. Jesus.
If you believe the LAW was so perfect why did Jesus say that God NEVER intended for their to be a writ of divorce but because of the hardness of their hearts God allowed it ?
Jhn 7:22
Moses therefore gave unto you circumcision; (not because it is of Moses, but of the fathers
and ye on the sabbath day circumcise a man.Jhn 7:23
If a man on the sabbath day receive circumcision, that the law of Moses should not be broken; are ye angry at me, because I have made a man every whit whole on the sabbath day?
Jhn 7:24
Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment.
Mar 10:4
And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away.
Mar 10:5
And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.
Mar 10:6
But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
By the way are you a Pharisee ?
Excellent post!
You're always in "Attack Mode" aren't ya?
Excellent post.
Wrong, again.
You don't really have any desire for truth. You're firmly stuck in your ignorance and are comfortable there. I kinda think you're unteachable.
Your "Amusement" is misplaced.
Right Divider
Body part
Your RRZ is overwhelming you.
I don't put any "limits on God in the flesh". I simply believe the Bible.
Gal 4:1-5 (AKJV/PCE)
(4:1) Now I say, [That] the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all; (4:2) But is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father. (4:3) Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world: (4:4) But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, (4:5) To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Was Jesus an Israelite or not? What in the world do you think that "made under the law" means?
musterion
Well-known member
This incident happened on Old Testament ground just as much as if it had taken place under Moses.
Had Christ condemned her, He would have been guilty of breaking the Law by condemning only the woman and not the absent man -- an angle the Pharisees, hypocrites that they were, would have been sure to play up to denounce Him. Therefore, He did not condemn her. HE COULDN'T.
Had Christ forgiven her (assuming she'd even wanted to be forgiven, which does not seem to be the case), He would likewise have broken the Law for pronouncing her forgiven for something which under the Law could not be forgiven but required death. Therefore He did not forgive her. HE COULDN'T.
Had Christ condemned her, He would have been guilty of breaking the Law by condemning only the woman and not the absent man -- an angle the Pharisees, hypocrites that they were, would have been sure to play up to denounce Him. Therefore, He did not condemn her. HE COULDN'T.
Had Christ forgiven her (assuming she'd even wanted to be forgiven, which does not seem to be the case), He would likewise have broken the Law for pronouncing her forgiven for something which under the Law could not be forgiven but required death. Therefore He did not forgive her. HE COULDN'T.
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dodge
New member
Why do you believe scripture specifically says the LAW came by MOSES but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ ?
Jhn 1:17
For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
dodge, virtually every post of yours is wrong, no matter what the thread is.
dodge
New member
Why Jesus tell her He DID not CONDEMN HER TO GO AND SIN NO MORE ? Seems like you missed that.
dodge
New member
Could be that Madist are blinded by the error they believe and promote. Creating a Gospel that does not exists blinds folks to the truth of the ONE true Gospel.
Thanks, I must be doing it right . If a Madist agreed with any of my posts I would have to go back and re-study the scriptures because I would be worried I compromised the truth to follow a lie.
:chuckle:
andyc
New member
First of all, look what I stated a couple of days ago....
So far only Lighthouse had come up with a reason why Jesus could forgive a woman's many sins, even though she was supposedly bound to the law. The reason - simply because God can do what he wants. There's no other possible explanation for the madists to come up with. And so Clete for the FIRST time in this thread has had to agree with Lighthouse, and he becomes the second person.
Only Lighthouse had pointed it out before you now.
Nope. I dealt with this.
I said that those who sin in the law shall be judged by the law, and those who sin outside the law shall be judged outside the law.
Those who were under the law were looking forward to a hope of forgiveness, but didn't have a basis for forgiveness to cling to. And so the faith was in God providing, but because the provision had not yet come. And so the saints who died before Christ, died in faith looking forward to the provision that will remove sin once for all.
Hebrews 11:13 These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off were assured of them, embraced them and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth.
Now, the woman in Luke 7 was forgiven, which was a privilege that no one had had before Christ.
You are saying that she could be forgiven because Jesus is God, but if she was under the law, she was under different terms and conditions regarding sin. God would have been bound to the law just as much as the woman, because the covenant was two way.
The only reason a new covenant was brought in, is because man broke the covenant, and God had a way to annul the first covenant by satisfying it's demands personally (Christ).
AND IT IS THIS THAT GAVE JESUS THE BASIS TO FORGIVE THE WOMAN. He took the condemnation her sin deserved upon himself. He is the lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.
Boy it's hard work talking to you guys because you put your hyperdispensationalism above the word of God, then get confused and come up with nonsense like "Jesus could do what he likes cause he's God" :doh:
andyc
New member
Well can you come up with some old covenant example of grace, and what it's based on?
No
:chuckle:
:chuckle: