Romans 7:7 ... for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
When the word lust is use according to it's strict English definition, it means very strong sexual desire. However, when lust is used in the Bible, it means covet because the underlying Greek word means covet
not strong sexual desire, as we see in the NASB translation:
Romans 7:7 ... I would not have known about coveting if the Law had not said, "YOU SHALL NOT COVET."
When Jesus used the word lust, he meant coveting, not strong sexual desire.
Matthew 5:27-28 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Here's the Greek word he used:
1937 epithyméō (from 1909 /epí, "focused on" intensifying 2372 /thymós, "passionate desire") – properly, to show focused passion as it aptly builds on (Gk epi, "upon") what a person truly yearns for; to "greatly desire to do or have something – 'to long for, to desire very much' " (L & N, 1, 25.12).
He was referring to the commandment:
Exodus 20:17 "You shall not covet your neighbor's house; you shall not covet your neighbor's wife or his male servant or his female servant or his ox or his donkey or anything that belongs to your neighbor."
If we were to interpret the word lust in Romans 7:7 KJV and Matthew 5:27-28 to mean lust strictly according to English definition of the word, a single man could not become sexually aroused by a single woman without sinning. Surely, Jesus didn't mean to convey such an idea but was rather magnifying the commandment to not covet.
Discuss.