Justification by Faith Alone

Robert Pate

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Banned
We are justified by faith alone because we are justified by Christ alone.

"To declare, I say, at this time HIS righteousness: that he might be just and the JUSTIFIER OF HIM that believes in Jesus" Romans 3:26.

Jesus justifies the ungodly. "But to him that does NO WORKS, but believes on him that justifies the ungody, his faith is counted for righteousness, Romans 4:5.

Justification takes place totally and completely outside of us. We had nothing, absolutly nothing to do with our salvation or our justification. All that God asks us to do is to believe on his Son Jesus Christ, Plus nothing.

The reason that we are justified by faith alone, is because Jesus in our name and on our behalf has offered to God the Father a life of perfect obedience to his Holy Law. It was his life that was lived for our justification.

That was not enough. Something had to be done about our sins. "For he has made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" 2 Corinthians 5:21. Jesus in our name and on our behalf becomes our sin bearer. Not only for our sins but the sins of the whole world, 1 John 2:2.

God now sees ALL THINGS in his Son Jesus Christ. Jesus is God's new Adam and our new humanity, 2 Corinthians 5:17. All that have come to Christ as repentant sinners to be saved by Christ are in Christ. They have been sealed with the Holy Spirit, Ephesians 1:13 and are in Christ and Christ is in heaven, Colossians 3:3.

What does all of this mean? It means that salvation is by faith and by faith alone. It also means that all religions that are trying to be saved either by works, predestination, or whatever are false.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
We had nothing, absolutly nothing to do with our salvation...

Paul disagrees. Salvation is worked out through obedience.

Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling... (Philippians 2:12 NKJV)​
 

Nanja

Well-known member
What does all of this mean? It means that salvation is by faith and by faith alone. It also means that all religions that are trying to be saved either by works, predestination, or whatever are false.


False religion teaches that man must make the decision to become saved, forcing God's Hand by his/her own will.

But no man can come to Christ by his own faith; in an unregenerate state Rom. 8:7-8.

However, those Christ died for John 10:11. 15, Father draws them John 6:44;
which is an inward impelling of the Spirit to be led of Him:

Rom. 8:14
For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

And no man can predestinate himself to Salvation. But the scriptures bear witness to the fact that
God had predestinated some to be His Adopted Sons Eph. 1:4-5 to Salvation, without any
intervention of man, exclusively by His Grace, before the world began 2 Tim. 1:9.

~~~~~
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
We are justified by faith alone because we are justified by Christ alone.
I hope that those here realize, that it is by the faith of Jesus Christ that we are justified!

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
 

lukecash12

New member
This is what Scripture actually teaches about justification.

End of thread.

Or the very beginning of the thread. Linkwarz doesn't suffice as a logical case for Catholicism being right about both faith and works as a justification. My counter to that would be along the lines that Roman Catholics have confused repentance for penance, and hence have involved good works (penance) in justification.

Let us worship with music as we spend time thinking about the Lord:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TfMAbgNr3cI

Repentance, or metanoeo in the Greek, is a compound word indicating both "mind" and "change towards". So what we have is not a behavioral change, but an internal change. There are just a couple of places that show explicit Greek in the NT and call for both repentance and faith as the condition of salvation. In several other areas they are separately given as the condition of salvation. This makes it a hermeneutic necessity to consider the two as simultaneous parts of the same event, that metanoeo (which we must note on a linguistic level as a directional word) is occurring towards the pistis/faith of Jesus.

But before we can assess any of this, we need to discuss the meaning of sin and the atonement. First I'd like to lay out on a basic level what my perspective looks like, in order to have a frame of reference as we get into more detailed hermeneutic discussion.

It is a bit lengthy so I've divided it into two parts:

Part 1


The issue of sin-

In the story of Adam and Eve, an emotional detail is often taken for granted that is key for understanding what exactly sin is and what sin feels like on God's end, found in the very start of the Bible. When they, His first great creations, succumb to the erroneous idea that they themselves can become something more, something like God, they do something as simple as eating fruit.

It has nothing to do with what they've physically done, though, nothing like the basic emotional repulsion of our stereotype as Christians, that sins like engaging in sexual immorality or hurting someone is "icky" or "ugly"; what it has everything to do with is that something in their mental nature has changed, and the action was little more than a symbol, a side effect of something I find much more emotionally disturbing. It is something that grieves me personally quite a bit more than "icky", "ugly", or "I hate that person, either that or I hate what they're doing" (btw, I'm not trying to describe you guys at all with this bit, just woolgathering about some prevailing attitudes).

What I despise is what has internally happened to humanity and what they were deprived of; of course that isn't nearly as important as how much I despise the emotional consequences on God's end.

Upon God's return He asks: "Where are you?" It is imperative to dwell on this moment because at this point God is having His first experience of separation.

We have to ask ourselves what exactly He is being separated from. What is God getting out of all of this in the first place? This is His special creation that is capable of asking questions, of having a theory of mind and dominating his/her immediate environment to the point of possessing responsibility, of being able to practice jurisprudence. While such jurisprudence may have fallen into a sad state at this point, at first it was marvelous. But what's more this thing adores what it sees, it wants to name things and learn about them. So the most lovely, most interesting thing in all of existence, the One that conceived of existence in the first place is finally able to have a sounding board for His thoughts.

And now something has happened, some action that disagrees with this thing's God gifted nature and it has hidden itself. Of course, compared to God it is naive and He knows exactly where it is hiding, but there is a break in the communication with that special God gifted part within them, an intellectual and emotional connection has been severed. In a manner of speaking God already feels hidden from them, and they Him.

Adam and Eve have arrived at the thought that they are not exactly alike to God (correct), but they should be (obviously incorrect), and for reasons they can't explain they are ashamed of what has happened. Maybe they now realize to some extent at this point that there is an essential likeness they have to Him, but by their very nature as it compares to His they can't think or do things on the same scale, so in doing what they've done they have driven a wedge of confusion into the issue; now all of a sudden they feel even less alike to Him. The accessibility is severed.

So, now that God has asked the first of His two most anguishing rhetorical questions, we proceed to contemplate the importance of the second question.

The issue of the atonement-

There is now an inconceivable avalanche of this sensation for God as He only knows how long the story takes, and because He knows of no time boundaries on Himself (time being something conceived of within His mind), there is torrential anguish to be had as He is painstakingly aware of all of the sin that happened, is happening, and will happen. But God was aware of this in an inscrutable period, if it can be understood as a "period" at all, called eternity past. He has predetermined the atonement that will solve this problem to His satisfaction.

What is the atonement? Yes, a typical answer would be the crucifixion, but what is it really? God has assumed responsibility for something He isn't even personally responsible for, and has decided that He will experience the entire punishment, a reasonable punishment in light of the kind of pain incurred, all Himself in order that He can be satisfied coming into a relationship with as much of His beloved creations as He can. Even contemplating at all, on the feeble level of which I am capable what this atonement involved for Him, gives me some idea of how much pleasure He takes in the spiritual results on the other end. He considered it worth it after all.

There is something in His nature that cries out this sentiment: "Someone must fully reckon and then experience all of the fallout anguish involved with this, in order for Me to be satisfied." It goes without saying that only He would be capable of doing that in the first place, so He was the sole qualified volunteer.

For our special benefit, He arranged that His own experience with death would be by crucifixion. It must be emphasized that an experience as meager as physical suffering, however bothersome it may be to us, is truly a triviality for a being like God during the atonement. The emotional, as opposed to physical, pain cannot remotely be mutually reckoned.

So why this particular type of execution? Crucifixion under the Roman empire was actually a public shaming ritual, where those whom the people deemed "low lives" were often marred beyond recognition, eventually covered in their own excrement as involuntary bodily functions occur during the process, and generally dehumanized in a number of unseemly ways. What more appropriate ritual for the benefit of our comprehension then, as the very thing that separated us from God was a dehumanizing of self?

Probably a great majority of Christians tend to think about the physical and sheer emotional pain involved here, but the primary end here was experiencing emotional pain and it would not be a simple kind of emotional pain at all. As the Scriptures record, He laid the sins of the world on Himself through His human form (the incredible quagmire that is Trinitarian theology and other concepts of the Godhead, has no topical space to be addressed here), so what we are examining right now is the point when God experienced every agonizing consequence of all of the sins combined, in the space of a few hours.

So far as I can meagerly comprehend, He dealt with the alienating, self loathing, manic depression that comes with the essential human crisis, which is at it's core the sensation of feeling separated, feeling insecure and little more than an animal, examining the consequences brought upon others- including God of course- in retrospect and feeling shame, and so on.

At this particular point He asks the most terrible rhetorical question, one that is emotionally difficult for me to read when I come across it: "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" He experienced the incomprehensibly horrible sensation of complete separation, Himself.
 

lukecash12

New member
Part 2


*Limited atonement. This is the kind of atonement where Jesus doesn't pay for the sins of the world. He only pays for the sins of the elect.
*Unlimited atonement. Jesus does pay for the sins of the world. The habitual use of the Greek word kosmos I believe makes this conclusion inescapable, as the only established way to interpret that as scriptural hyperbole would be to say Jesus' atonement was prophetic; remember that the OT prophets were purposefully hyperbolic when describing what would happen to Egypt, Babylon, Persia, etc., so there are valid ways to understand hyperbole in the Jewish mind, but it certainly wouldn't apply to this.

So, in the first instance Jesus pays the punishment only for the sins of the elect. And in the second instance He pays for the sins of everyone. This second position is most often understood in a provisional sense, in order to reason around universal salvation on one end, and Jesus sending people He has forgiven to hell on the other end.

*Governmental atonement. God, in His capacity as Sovereign, can pardon sins in a manner more like a ruler than a judge. The crucifixion itself was purely a revelation of God's love and holy nature, and during it Jesus did not actually pay for sin. They view things like "why hast thou forsaken me" as symbolic and instructional. Also, in their reasoning, God simply pardons people out of a view toward the public good.
*Satisfactory atonement. God must be satisfied. Sin must be punished, so Jesus became the object of punishment. It's probably obvious why govt atonement is much less widely recognized as scriptural, given references to Jesus actually tasting the full cup of wrath, the Lord laying the iniquity of us all upon Him, and so on (not to mention that it flies in the face of the whole OT on sin offerings, which set about the idea of a sacrificial substitute). Like I've established in the last post, it is very important to consider what sin is and why it displeases God before we can better grasp what the Word says about the atonement.

So, in GA God is operating according to His prerogatives as a ruler. Instead of punishing sin in a manner fully committed to justice for the satisfaction of Him as the grieved party, He uses His life and death as a revelation so that we can understand both His holiness and His offer of pardon. According to those who believe this, God's wisdom intercedes between us and His justice, allowing Him to grant pardons for the sake of public welfare.

In SA, on the other end, God supposedly operates according to His prerogatives as a judge. At least, that's what the writing on the subject mostly boils down to. Personally, I don't believe this is a fitting description (although I agree with the way F. Leroy Forlines, for example, works this out beyond the basic definition of "judge oriented atonement"), because the Bible describes Christ ascending to heaven in order to be both judge and ruler. The two roles must be consistent with each other in order to appropriately describe Him as both.

There are some things in particular that I believe are crucial to understanding this subject:

1. Sin is an internal, spiritual action that distorts our view of the image of God within. The result of sin is separation.
2. God made us so that we can feel kinship. There are extremely important ways that we are similar to Him, and sharing in those similarities is the very essence of love expression between mankind and God.
3. Because of the magnitude of God's loss, given that His love relationships were the very purpose of creation, and given the very personal wounding that comes along with distorting the image, God must be satisfied. The very first thing we should consider any time we try to wrap our heads around sin and the atonement, is God's own feelings. Depriving Him of this eminently reasonable and generous end, this love relationship, is something worthy of punishment.
4. Spiritual communion is the key link showing our similarity with the Lord. It is the highest form of love expression, and when we examine the sum total of the Spirit's gifts what we can see is a shift towards Man before the Fall. This is how we go from no longer being separated to grasping with our feelings that there is no separation.

Another area that is often written about and worth noting, is that Jesus' death and submission in having our sins placed on Him, is the passive obedience part of the atonement. The active obedience part was His holy life. This is helpful to understand when reading about GA from theologians who are Wesleyan Arminians, for example, as they will argue that those believing in satisfactory atonement have emphasized the passive obedience over the active obedience.

Where am I getting my idea that the whole problem with sin is separation, as opposed to some aesthetic judgment? Consider things such as how the OT habitually connects adultery to idolatry, or why Song of Solomon is even scripture in the first place. The normal sense that I get from Christians is that they think sin is "icky" or "ugly" on some basic level, that what their view of sin really boils down to is aesthetics. "It's because God said this is good and that is bad." I like to call that what it is: the "ice cream flavors" view of sin. What I'm really trying to bring home is this idea of sin: "What this is, isn't you, and it definitely isn't Me. What it is, is something else. You've dehumanized yourself, and in doing so you've deprived Me of my greatest desire." Something inside us tells us that there is a substantial truth behind sin being so terrible, but still most folks seem only capable of arriving at "ice cream flavors" when you really assess their statements.

In closing I would remark that it's necessary to contemplate the nature of sin itself and the atonement, before examining scriptures about how salvation is attained on our end. We must understand, on our own feeble level, what we are being saved from and what it is that God did about the problem. A notable area that I've left out is discussion of the Augustinian model of sin, primarily because I am assuming the majority of Christians here, whether or not they are aware, find the Augustinian model formative for their thoughts about sin.

In simple terms, ones that don't really do justice to the whole of the idea, Augustus of Hippo brought the concept of original sin and the biblical definition of depravity back into focus, in a Catholic church indebted to Augustus because they hadn't had a formal concept of depravity sin the 1st century church and early fathers like Polycarp, Tertullian, and Clement.
 
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aikido7

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The conflict of faith versus works was taken from Paul, Augustine and Luther.

There was no conflict in the vision of Jesus. ALL were sinners and ALL were granted forgiveness if they forgave others.

Faith and works go hand in hand in helping God establish the Kingdom of God on earth.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
The conflict of faith versus works was taken from Paul, Augustine and Luther.

There was no conflict in the vision of Jesus. ALL were sinners and ALL were granted forgiveness if they forgave others.

Faith and works go hand in hand in helping God establish the Kingdom of God on earth.
Our pattern for forgiveness is not forgive in order to be forgiven, but to forgive because God hath forgiven us.


Ephesians 4:32 And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
God only has forgiveness of sins for His Elect Eph. 1:4-7!

~~~~~
Your distortions are a result of your refusal to rightly divide the word of truth.

The truth:

1 Timothy 2:4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
 

Nanja

Well-known member
Your distortions are a result of your refusal to rightly divide the word of truth.

The truth:

1 Timothy 2:4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.


The "all", the Saved, are those who were elected to Salvation before the foundation of the world.

That's it.

~~~~~
 

lukecash12

New member
God only has forgiveness of sins for His Elect Eph. 1:4-7!

~~~~~

Falling back to limited areas of scripture and ignoring the repeated uses of kosmos elsewhere, an explicitly universal word, is not hermeneutics. It is confirmation bias, pure and simple. Limited atonement as a doctrine does damage to harmonizing texts.

Given the advanced state of linguistic knowledge and the discipline of theology today, limited atonement is hardly a rigorous enough proposition to stand up any more. At the very least, if we are truly being logical, we must accept that Jesus forgave all original sin.

1 Timothy 2:1-6

First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all people, 2 for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead a peaceful and quiet life, godly and dignified in every way. 3 This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.

Here we can see a statement in full context. Ho dous heauton antilutron huper pantOn. Christ gifts Himself as an "instead-loosener", or "redemption price" for all. PantOn is a Greek masculine genitive plural, and in light of it's grammatical function it can be translated as "any", "every", or "all".

In the absence of any qualifiers elsewhere as to who that "all" is, we already have grammatically explicit Greek in support of the doctrine of unlimited atonement.

But let's proceed further than that with John, in the second chapter of his first epistle, using a qualifier to explicitly communicate how that this "all" extends to the whole world, not just the elect. However we are going to treat that knowledge, if we arrive at universal salvation (a proposition that can clearly be established as not scriptural), or the covering of all original sin, it must be registered that Jesus made some form of sin payment for every single person.

1st John 2:1-2

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. 2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

He is the hilasmos/atonement for the hamartio/misses/sin ou peri ton hemeteron, "not concerning only us", but peri holou tou kosmou, "concerning the whole world". John is painstakingly clear in this phrase when he applies holou, meaning "the whole", to kosmou, meaning in Greek "the universe".

We can struggle to understand, but let us not diminish God's achievement, in light of the price He paid and His sovereign prerogative to forgive as much as He chooses.
 

lukecash12

New member
God's Children are His Adopted Sons Eph 1:4-5.

~~~~~

You are confusing the definition of individual saved people for the topic of the atonement itself. If we are going to be reverent with the scriptures, it behooves us to consider all portions of it instead of sticking our fingers in our ears, and quoting another portion that isn't even specifically relevant.

Refer back to post #16:

1 Timothy 2:1-6

First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all people, 2 for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead a peaceful and quiet life, godly and dignified in every way. 3 This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.

Here we can see a statement in full context. Ho dous heauton antilutron huper pantOn. Christ gifts Himself as an "instead-loosener", or "redemption price" for all. PantOn is a Greek masculine genitive plural, and in light of it's grammatical function it can be translated as "any", "every", or "all".

In the absence of any qualifiers elsewhere as to who that "all" is, we already have grammatically explicit Greek in support of the doctrine of unlimited atonement.
1st John 2:1-2

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. 2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

He is the hilasmos/atonement for the hamartio/misses/sin ou peri ton hemeteron, "not concerning only us", but peri holou tou kosmou, "concerning the whole world". John is painstakingly clear in this phrase when he applies holou, meaning "the whole", to kosmou, meaning in Greek "the universe".
If you can't directly address this material, rather jumping over to the definition of the "children of God" as your recourse, you are effectively sticking your fingers in your ears. I'm not the one who used words like holou and kosmou, John the beloved was.
 

aikido7

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Banned
Our pattern for forgiveness is not forgive in order to be forgiven, but to forgive because God hath forgiven us.


Ephesians 4:32 And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you.
Both John the Baptizer as well as Jesus spoke of repentance before God. Nothing like a blood sacrifice. In fact, Jesus forgave and offered (and granted) salvation for many without requiring the spilling of blood on the altar.

It is remarkable that preachers on Sunday will declare Jesus as a human sacrifice for God and man will turn around and offer Jesus's Lord's Prayer as a model for their parishioners.

"Forgive us our debts (trespasses) as we forgive those who trespass against us."

Forgiveness is reciprocal, said Jesus. We are forgiven to the extent we forgive others.

To understand it, it is necessary to comprehend the culture in which it was written, that of 1st century Judaism. The prayer appears in the New Testament twice, in slightly different forms: In Matthew 6:9-13, and in Luke, 11:2-4.

In both cases, it is delivered by Jesus, which helps explain the revered status it holds.

When Jesus' disciples heard the prayer, they would have responded differently than a modern churchgoer.

To begin with, he said, the term "Father" ( Abba in the original Greek or Aramaic) connoted a "householder," one who oversaw the affairs of a family. A householder would have been judged by how well he provided for everyone.

When the prayer continues with "hallowed be thy name" what it means by "hallowed" is a fair distribution for all, the justice of an equitable household.

In other words the prayer is about "distributive justice," about making sure that all are cared for.

It is revolutionary because it presumes and proclaims the radical vision of justice that is the core of Israel's biblical tradition.

It dreams of an Earth where the Holy One of justice and righteousness actually gets to establish--as we might say--the annual budget for the global economy."
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Both John the Baptizer as well as Jesus spoke of repentance before God. Nothing like a blood sacrifice.
The fact that Christ was going to die "for our sins" was a mystery then. Of course, it was not spoken of!

1 Corinthians 2:6 Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought:

1 Corinthians 2:7 But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory:

1 Corinthians 2:8 Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

You have no good news that is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth outside of the gospel of Christ (Romans 1:16 KJV); which is that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV)!
 

aikido7

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Banned
The fact that Christ was going to die "for our sins" was a mystery then. Of course, it was not spoken of!

1 Corinthians 2:6 Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought:

1 Corinthians 2:7 But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory:

1 Corinthians 2:8 Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

You have no good news that is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth outside of the gospel of Christ (Romans 1:16 KJV); which is that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV)!
It was a mystery but it was spoken of by the writer of the Gospel of John. And by Paul.

John was so focused on depicting Jesus as the slaughtered sinless Lamb of God that he even changed the day that Jesus was killed ! The other three gospels wrote that Jesus died on the next day.

For John, Jesus dies on the Day of Preparation. This was the day BEFORE Passover, the day when the lambs to be eaten at tomorrow's festal holiday were killed, skinned and cooked.

Both John and Paul of Tarsus believed in a sacrificial metaphor of Jesus's death. Jesus and John the Baptizer followed a much older tradition of a God of mercy who demands repentance and forgiveness of others.

The two contradictory traditions can be seen interwoven throughout the Bible from Genesis to Revelation.
 
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