Ever since I first read the off-base conclusion held by some on here: that Romans 2:17 is referring, not to Jews, but to Gentiles, I have searched in vain for evidence that such is the case.
I continue to find that Paul is referring to Jews in that passage.
Meaning that those who assert some proselyte conclusion, well, not only does it put in question their obviously odd approach to that passage, but what's behind how they have ended up at some of their other, equally odd conclusions.
Ok, your turn, heir.
Lol, I can already see that cartoon of that biker; its hair on fire, rushing to voice its self-righteous indignation :rotfl:
A good ribbing aside; you and yours are simply off-base in this Romans 2:17 conclusion of yours.
I continue to find that Paul is referring to Jews in that passage.
Meaning that those who assert some proselyte conclusion, well, not only does it put in question their obviously odd approach to that passage, but what's behind how they have ended up at some of their other, equally odd conclusions.
Ok, your turn, heir.
Lol, I can already see that cartoon of that biker; its hair on fire, rushing to voice its self-righteous indignation :rotfl:
A good ribbing aside; you and yours are simply off-base in this Romans 2:17 conclusion of yours.