Interplanner
Well-known member
Hello, I see this "1P 2P" on here all the time but have no idea what this means. Can you please explain?
If you go far enough back in threads, you will see some that start with its definition as formed by Charles Ryrie, Dallas Theological Seminary, in his book DISPENSATIONALISM TODAY from the 60s. He came to the conclusion that there must be two programs running in the Bible, one for Jews and one for everyone else. He did this because of the frequent reference to the land in the OT, in Judaism. The two programs never meet, never intersect, never have the same purpose or out come. "Saved" does not mean the same thing in each.
My position is that, no matter what we find in the OT, the NT interp of the OT is the final meaning. If the sample, official sermon of Paul in Acts 13 says that 'whatever God promised to the fathers has been fulfilled in the resurrection of Christ' then I drop all the other things I find in the OT and go with that. I also notice there is no clear reference to a restored land of Israel in the NT, and that the eschatology of the NT about the end of time is very quickly transpired from one end to the other. The enemy of the believers is suddenly destroyed and the NHNE is made of the residue of this earth. Ie, there is no time for a restored state or theocracy of Israel.
Paul says the original "Jewish" blessing was the Gospel, in Gal 3:8,9. In fact, most of Gal 3 cannot be absorbed if you accept the premise of 2P2P. Gal 3 completely undoes it.
In other words, I find 2P2P to be a fraud and confusion.