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Is there any obvious evidence today for the biblical global Flood?

Tambora

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I'm sorry that you feel that way, but there has been nothing wrong with the way that I communicate.
No need for sorrow, it's just the way it is between some people.


That you think that I claimed that you were denying the the global flood... that is you seeing something that was not there.
I didn't say you were.
That is you reading an intent in my posts that was not there.
 

Tambora

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thank you for saying it another way

I remember Bob Enyart
restating the golden rule in reverse
' don't do to others that which you don't want done to you '
That's a neat thing about language, one can express the same concept in different ways.
 

Clete

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That's a neat thing about language, one can express the same concept in different ways.
The premise being here that you're expressing the same concept, which isn't clearly the case.

For you to say that there is "No indication that it (the flood) was not global." is grammatically identical to me saying that there is no indication that you're not good person. The construct, when clung to persistently, implies the possibility that the opposite is true. It's a politician's trick where he can sound like he's saying something without actually saying it.

In fact, I can see no reason at all that would make any sense for you to so stubbornly refuse to abandon the clearly ambiguous double negative other than that you want to leave open the notion that Noah's flood was something other than global.
 

Tambora

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The premise being here that you're expressing the same concept, which isn't clearly the case.

For you to say that there is "No indication that it (the flood) was not global." is grammatically identical to me saying that there is no indication that you're not good person. The construct, when clung to persistently, implies the possibility that the opposite is true. It's a politician's trick where he can sound like he's saying something without actually saying it.

In fact, I can see no reason at all that would make any sense for you to so stubbornly refuse to abandon the clearly ambiguous double negative other than that you want to leave open the notion that Noah's flood was something other than global.
OK by me if you want to think that.
Others didn't have a problem understanding what I meant.
 

JudgeRightly

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I don't think one should consider poor grammar in scripture as stupidity.

Scripture isn't the one using poor grammar. You are.

The Bible affirmatively states that the flood was global. It says:

In the six hundredth year of Noah’s life, in the second month, the seventeenth day of the month, on that day all the fountains of the great deep were broken up, and the windows of heaven were opened.And the rain was on the earth forty days and forty nights. . . . Now the flood was on the earth forty days. The waters increased and lifted up the ark, and it rose high above the earth.The waters prevailed and greatly increased on the earth, and the ark moved about on the surface of the waters.And the waters prevailed exceedingly on the earth, and all the high hills under the whole heaven were covered.The waters prevailed fifteen cubits upward, and the mountains were covered. - Genesis 7:11-12,17-20 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis7:11-12,17-20&version=NKJV
 

Clete

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I don't think one should consider poor grammar in scripture as stupidity.
It isn't scripure's grammer that poor, its yours! You are the one insisting on using what you've been repeatedly and accurately told is a double negative and its been explained to you, in I'd don't know how many ways, why its confusing/misleading/wrong, and yet you stubbornly persist in its use for no dicernable reason other than that you don't want to be caught changing your stance on something as mundane as a point of grammar.
 

Tambora

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Are you started to get the point here?

He's was not talking about poor grammar in scripture.
So poor grammar in scripture is fine.

He was talking about your insistence on using poor grammar and a poor argument when a good grammar and good argument exists.
I don't insist that precise grammar must be used, nor have I insisted that poor grammar must be used.
I can understand what is meant either way, so I don't make mountains out of molehills about it.
If I did I would be making a big deal out of Clete's post above.
 

Clete

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So poor grammar in scripture is fine.
Care to make even the slightest attempt to show me even one single example of poor grammar in scripture?

NO!
I don't insist that precise grammar must be used, nor have I insisted that poor grammar must be used.
I can understand what is meant either way, so I don't make mountains out of molehills about it.
If I did I would be making a big deal out of Clete's post above.
Typos are mistakes. What you're doing is no mistake. You are INTENTIONALLY insisting on using flagrantly poor grammar FOR NO GOOD REASON!

At this point it isn't even about the grammar error itself, its about your inexplicable stubbornness to acknowledge it as an error and your irrational insistence on its continued use.
 
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