glorydaz
Well-known member
:rotfl:
You KNOW when someone thinks too highly of themselves when they use a footstool to pat themselves on the back.
The hardest part is getting them to recognize what they're doing.
:rotfl:
You KNOW when someone thinks too highly of themselves when they use a footstool to pat themselves on the back.
Surely you understand that nothing you've offered proves otherwise.
Note - as per the subject at hand. Would you care to read the scripture?Exodus 20:10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exodus 20:11 For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
Eisegesis is the process of interpreting a text or portion of text in such a way that the process introduces one's own presuppositions, agendas, or biases into and onto the text. This is commonly referred to as reading into the text.The act is often used to "prove" a pre-held point of concern to the reader and to provide him or her with confirmation bias in accordance with his or her pre-held agenda. |
I do understand the issue. Gill can't change that one way or the other.
So, let me simplify this just for you. I have no problem understanding Gill's commentary when I'm given more than a little blurb that starts mid-sentence the way you did. I'm not sure why you are so reliant on one particular commentator, anyway, when what is being discussed here is so obvious and simple.
Well, I suppose that could be, but I believe the Ten does contain all that. The command not to commit adultery for instance. Adultery is not limited to a woman.
Jeremiah 3:9 And it came to pass through the lightness of her whoredom, that she defiled the land, and committed adultery with stones and with stocks.
Wouldn't those three passages be examples of a metaphor comparing idolatry to adultery, rather than literal adultery? If you are looking for a literal commandment applicable to those passages, I would suggest Exodus 20:4, "Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image..."
No, and No.
So much work....as if I didn't know the difference between literal and figurative.
This is the condescension I've been talking about.
It is refreshing to have some things not in dispute.
If someone were to ask me that question, I would still need to determine what they actually meant as to know what type of answer to supply: I don't have the same ability that Jesus had to discern the heart. As the case in point, the example of the lawyer is contrasted by a different person who asked exactly the same question, but his answer had a subtle (but very important) difference.
So why was one lawyer dismissed with a brief "Do this and live" but the other one which Jesus loved told "One thing thou lack, sell all that you have and follow me?" This explanation is also be consistent:
1) The first lawyer was not sincere and so no more was given. To clarify, if one truly would "Love God and Love Thy Neighbor" that path leads (instructs as the schoolmaster) to God and Faith and Christ. But Jesus could tell that wasn't his intention, and his attempt to justify himself with "Who is my neighbor" afterwards is evidence. So no more was given; the answer to the technical lawyer was technically correct in response; and pearls were still not cast before swine.
2) The second man is distinct in that we are told that Jesus beheld him and loved him. Jesus saw something in him, and when this man responded that he had kept those commandments from his youth (he obeyed the schoolmaster with his heart) Jesus showed him the natural progression of to faith to salvation through the Son of God:, "Sell all that you have and follow me." That law (of Moses and commandments) was not the salvation, but that law led to Christ, which was his salvation.
3) Were a random person to ask me "What must I do to inherit eternal life" I would choose an answer that they would understand. Your typical person on the street in a modern Western city isn't going to relate to Mosaic law (although there might be the odd exception) and they would also have their own set of hurdles (paradigms) that must be overcome, possibly including skepticism, atheism and humanism. And again, the answer to be given must be weighed against whether they were antagonistic, mildly curious, or sincere and committed.
You said that I would be "forced to go to Paul to get the answer... but I could just as easily use Christ's statement to the other young man "Sell all that you have and follow me" to explain the meaning of faith unto God and belief in his Son unto everlasting life. John 3:16 is a very common starting point and well understood, also from the gospels and not from Paul. It would depend on the person and the circumstance, and hopefully when presented with that question one would also have the sense to pray for the Holy Spirit to guide their words rightly as well. God willing the best answer may be provided for you for (Luke 12:11-12).
But I am using sin in that sense as well without internal contradiction. I also understand wrong actions (or failure to do rightly) as against the law of God; I also understand disobedience or rebellion against God to be against the law of God. If God's law is truly spiritual and we must worship him in spirit and in truth, then obedience of the heart and spirit is an inseparable part of that worship. Failure to worship God in spirit and truth would be sinful [sin.]
Matthew 19:5-8 KJV
(5) And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
(6) Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
(7) They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
(8) He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
To clarify, when I say "God's law" in this context I mean the spiritual law that has no codification on tablets or codex that has always existed. The Law to Israel would have based on and reflected that law and could be used to teach the Higher law.
I could see how Sozo's way of speaking could be easily misunderstood by many... including me. One would have to be careful to listen to understand.
Perhaps this was a lack in my part in forming the question, but the intended emphasis was meant to be "Do you attempt ... in faith...." It was entirely meant in the sense that here must be a point in which no follower of Christ could possibly disagree, surely this must be common ground, let us remember that we share this. The questions were intended to be as simple to respond to as "yes or no" to cut past all thorns that might scratch and object straight to the heart of the matter, even specifically that it is the heart that matters.
I don't understand what you're saying there Clete. Can you clarify?Truths that cannot be found on the lips of Jesus during His Earthly ministry because He was here as a Jew under the Law, He obeyed the Law and taught others to do the same and He, being innocent was killed by that same Law as a propitiatory sacrifice for those of us who are not innocent.
Resting in Him,
Clete
Except for what Paul says about the Law. Romans 7:12
In respect to this verse...we have many different translations, INCLUDING ordinances (KJV), requirements (NKJ), bill of charges (CJB), record of debt (ESV). However, if you look at what precedes that statement we see, "forgiven you all trespasses". Add to that the "handwriting" which was against us, it seems to be talking about the our sin DEBT and not the law that condemns us. It was the charges that were nailed to the tree of the condemned.
Colossians 2:13-14
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
No no no.Well, I suppose that could be, but I believe the Ten does contain all that.
God through Jeremiah and Ezekiel was drawing a parallel, not expanding the law against adultery. Israel is God's "bride" and she "cheated" on Him and so He divorced her (that's what the book of Lamentations is - Israel's divorce decree from God.)The command not to commit adultery for instance. Adultery is not limited to a woman.
Jeremiah 3:8 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.
Jeremiah 3:9 And it came to pass through the lightness of her whoredom, that she defiled the land, and committed adultery with stones and with stocks.
Ezekiel 23:37 That they have committed adultery, and blood is in their hands, and with their idols have they committed adultery, and have also caused their sons, whom they bare unto me, to pass for them through the fire, to devour them.
So, in other words, the Law of Moses is based upon and contained in the Ten Commandments and are, therefore, essentially the same thing.The commandment about coveting includes any and all desire of what does not belong to you. I believe this moral Law (including homosexuality) is written in the hearts of men.
I don't understand what you're saying there Clete. Can you clarify?
I've never seen the Bible describe the tree of the knowledge of good and evil as "the Law". Seems a bit far-fetched to me.It is the Law (The Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil - see post immediately prior to this one) that demands death in payment for trangressions of it. Jesus, being innocent, qualified as a propitiatory sacrifice to satify the demands of the Law.
Does that help?
I've never seen the Bible describe the tree of the knowledge of good and evil as "the Law". Seems a bit far-fetched to me.
The thrust of this post seems to miss my point.
Are you really suggesting that Jesus didn't teach that following the Mosaic Law was required and that He taught salvation by grace?
If so, you could not be more wrong. If not for the Pauline epistles, we would all be Messianic Jews. We would all insist that circumcision is required and we'd all be zealous for the law.
I "attempt" nothing. When it comes to righteousness, I've got nothin'! I've got less than nothin'! Every attempt I make to be righteous only digs me deeper into a hole. I cannot be better. My flesh is incapable of pleasing God and my inner man is complete in Him. Either way, there's no way for me to be better. So what's there to "attempt"?
Truths that cannot be found on the lips of Jesus during His Earthly ministry because He was here as a Jew under the Law, He obeyed the Law and taught others to do the same and He, being innocent was killed by that same Law as a propitiatory sacrifice for those of us who are not innocent.
Resting in Him,
Clete
While some of that looks pretty good; some of it looks a bit contrived to me.It is undeniably true. See the parallels between the two in post 847.
Perhaps.Plus, it does make same intuitive sense, right?
Perhaps.What is the law other than knowledge of good and evil?
Sure, buy me a copy.I strongly recommend reading The Plot by Bob Enyart.
Was this Jesus teaching grace?You are asking two separate questions. I'll answer them in reserve order:
1) Salvation has always been through faith and by grace; Grace is undeserved favor, God responds to faith with grace, Abraham and David (being examples from without and within the Law of Moses) were both justified by faith and not works of the law. All have sinned, but the forgiveness of sins is grace in action.
Jesus taught salvation by grace: "thy sins be forgiven thee", "for this thy brother was dead, and is alive again; and was lost, and now is found", "that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
I don't understand what you're saying there Clete. Can you clarify?
It is undeniably true. See the parallels between the two in post 847.
Plus, it does make same intuitive sense, right?
What is the law other than knowledge of good and evil?
I strongly recommend reading The Plot by Bob Enyart.
Was this Jesus teaching grace?Mat 6:14-15 KJV For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you: (15) But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.
Jesus said that their trespasses WOULD BE forgiven ONLY if they forgave others their trespasses.YES!
In the parable of the servant who owed ten thousand talents, did he deserve (earn) the right to have his debt forgiven? Did he repay this debt either through gathered money, or the sale of his family into slavery? Was this forgiveness of debt earned through the law, or forgiven of grace?
:thumb:If one 'does not' 'Rightly Divide' the 'Written word of God' confusion and unintended contradictions, will be the result.