No, love is not a "Jewish only" commandment. Read the letter from Paul to the Corinthians (he ranks love more important than faith), read the letters of John, who applies Christ's commandment to us as both a new commandment and one that we had from the very beginning.... and in the context of John, "the beginning"
really means "the beginning." Love is the eternal law that does not change and is not subject to circumstance.
Love is the very opposite of legalism. Ironically, the attempt to separate oneself from any "liability" to "love" in the name of "grace" or "avoiding legalism" is itself a
demonstration of legalism.... just like the man that asked "[but] Who is my neighbor?"
There is often a difference between theoretical belief and actual practice. You were able to say that you do attempt to fulfill God's will that we love him and one another through faith. On the other hand, someone else was adamant that I should not to presume to speak as if they were a child of God or his friend (Matthew 10:33) and wouldn't affirm those same questions.
So do I think that "you all" despise your neighbor and hate God? Not all, but the theory seems to allow it, and I see that exercised in practice.
You can speak for yourself and I already believe you.
No, you cannot be love without also doing love. Jesus speaks of a tree that produces no fruit, James speaks of a false faith that is dead that produces no fruits of love. I already anticipate that MAD will protest that "Jesus and James are only for the Jews" and if that is the response, to use legalistic maneuverings to evade scripture and what is obviously universal truth then I really don't feel like plastering up a Paul-based proof for people who are allergic to Jesus.
Mark 10:26-27 KJV
(26) And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved?
(27)
And Jesus looking upon them saith, With men it is impossible, but not with God: for with God all things are possible.
What were you suggesting was impossible?
The mistake (of the whole MAD mentality) is a manifestation of a type of spiritual racism. There is no difference between Jew or Greek. God doesn't require a new heart and his Holy Spirit in one people and have some sort of "separate but equal affirmative action" for those of different blood.
James 1:8 KJV
(8) A double minded man is unstable in all his ways.
But only for the Jew, right? Double-minded Gentiles are perfectly stable? What about "grudge not?" (James 5:9?) Only for the Jews? What about the tongue?
James 3:6 KJV
(6) And the tongue is a fire, a world of iniquity: so is the tongue among our members, that it defileth the whole body, and setteth on fire the course of nature; and it is set on fire of hell.
... or does one get to pick and choose what they like, and anything uncomfortable becomes "for the Jews?" That seems to be the pattern.I'm saying plainly that it is absurd, a plain Wrong Dividing on the truth.
That isn't a different gospel with different means or a different end. It's a different outreach to people from a different background. Our town here has a gospel outreach for the drug addicted. That doesn't mean it's a different message, it's just a different approach to bring people that message.
Yes, the early Jewish converts took a little time to make full adjustment. Was this in dispute?
When someone disregards the direct words of Christ that is ignoring what Jesus says, even if it is under the justification of "Mid Acts Dispensationalism." This isn't the first place I've witnessed "MAD" in action.
I don't think you fully see what Jesus was saying when he responded to "What must I do to inherit eternal life?" I don't mean that in an accusatory sense, I just mean there's more it than that, and it wasn't a statement that "Following the law" was eternal life. There are two instances to consider: the first in Mark 10:17, and Luke 18:18; and the second in Luke 10:25. Let's touch these for a moment:
In the first Jesus asks him, "Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God." That was not necessarily a rhetorical question, because the man is asking something that only God can give. When Jesus says "thou knowest the commandments" the man said he had kept these commandments always, yet Jesus did not say that was sufficient to inherit eternal life. He
lacked something. This passage really deserves more treatment, but he lacked following God with his entire heart. That was a spiritual element, not a legalistic element. The schoolmaster of the first four commandments leads to "Love God" and Christ, which is eternal life.
In the second example, Jesus deals with a lawyer that sought to justify himself. Jesus asks him not about the specifics of the law, but his interpretation of the law. The lawyer answers correctly that the law can be summed in "Love God" and "Love thy Neighbor." This was a
correct spiritual answer, and if one was
truly obeying the law
in spirit, discerning the
intent and following God (who is our Christ) in
faith and
belief. That selfsame heart would follow God wherever he was, wherever he would lead, regardless of time or circumstance. such a heart follows God, not the pattern of law itself. (Notice that Paul also acknowledges a "law of God" compared to a "law of sin" in Romans 7.)
As such, Jesus can say "do this and live" yet he did not seem to give an indication that he was happy or pleased. The lawyer had no intent to "do this" and so the exchange did not end there. You know the rest.... "who is my neighbor?" The lawyer, while recognizing the spirit of the law, sought to limit its application. Perhaps "Love my neighbor" only applies to other Jews? Enter legalism, and his law now becomes the law of sin unto death. The rule is the same for both Jew and Gentile: salvation is always by faith and belief, disobedience to God is always sin, and love is an eternal commandment.
I certainly have never said
nor meant to imply that the Christian (regardless of blood or cultural background) is immune to sin or its influence. That which is planted may take a while to bloom, but if the Spirit is present it will produce fruit. If we are not producing fruit of that Spirit we should ask ourselves why, it is an important warning to us that we should heed. If we have not the Spirit we are none of his (Romans 8:9) and it is possible to quench the spirit (1 Thessalonians 5:19) and to taste of the Holy Spirit and fall away without redemption (Hebrews 6:4).
The Holy Spirit is a salvation issue, and it is a universal truth that we are judged at the end of all things. Christ speaks to us through Ezekiel telling us that the righteousness of a man is for naught if he forsakes God to wickedness, just as the wicked are forgiven if they turn to God to do what is right. I almost anticipate that "MAD" would say "that was only for the Jew?" to which I would say that it is absurd to believe that
God's ways are unequal. Revelation 2:4-5 KJV
(4) Nevertheless I have somewhat against thee, because thou hast left thy first love.
(5) Remember therefore from whence thou art fallen, and repent, and do the first works; or else I will come unto thee quickly, and will remove thy candlestick out of his place, except thou repent.
The imputation of righteousness is dependent in
a continuing faith and belief which is also manifests itself in a continual spirit of repentance. We give God all that we have, and grace covers the rest. Does not our baptism into Christ represent the death of the old man in totality and not in part? But if we promise all and yet hold back, does not our sin resemble that of Ananias? We
are justified through faith, but likewise
whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
I realize that I am addressing an angle or two that may not be specifically address your view. I do have a post not to far back where I listed all of the "MAD" issues (at least concerning ignoring scripture on the Jew vs. non-Jew paradigm) and requested anyone to address the points
on their merits. No one has cared to respond to that, you're welcome to open that up if you would like.