Caledvwlch
New member
I'm sure it has been discussed... was a reasonable answer ever given?Zakath said:This one has been discussed in (painful) detail here on TOL before but I believe the threads have been "pruned" to free up server space.
I'm sure it has been discussed... was a reasonable answer ever given?Zakath said:This one has been discussed in (painful) detail here on TOL before but I believe the threads have been "pruned" to free up server space.
As I was one of the major discussants, I can say that I never thought any of the explanations provided were particularly convincing, or even held up under scrutiny.Caledvwlch said:I'm sure it has been discussed... was a reasonable answer ever given?
But the name of the town--as it was called by native Nazarenes--would have been known by Matthew.Zakath said:Begging the question, of course, of whether the gospel attributed to Matthew was actually written in Hebrew or Aramaic and nohave beent originally written in Greek; in which case the point does not stand.
I find that most discussions of inerrancy end up with either a round of name-calling or a bit of pious sniffing and a comment like, "The Holy Spirit has to make it clear to you. Since you're a non-believer you obviously don't understand."
I don't mean to be a pain in your butt Zakath, but I'm honestly curious. How does one defend the obvious differences?Zakath said:As I was one of the major discussants, I can say that I never thought any of the explanations provided were particularly convincing, or even held up under scrutiny.
I find that most discussions of inerrancy end up with either a round of name-calling or a bit of pious sniffing and a comment like, "The Holy Spirit has to make it clear to you. Since you're a non-believer you obviously don't understand."
But no scripture has ever been found in either Masoretic or Septuagint versions to serve as the basis for the author of Matthew's gospel's "citation".ilyatur said:But the name of the town--as it was called by native Nazarenes--would have been known by Matthew.
Well, I certainly don't... :chuckle:Caledvwlch said:I don't mean to be a pain in your butt Zakath, but I'm honestly curious. How does one defend the obvious differences?
Thank you. Just what I was looking for.Zakath said:Well, I certainly don't... :chuckle:
Dozens of apologetic volumes, totalling many times the length of the entire bible, have been written to attempt reconcile the errors in the allegedly infallible Judeo-Christian scriptures. I'd suggest you might avail yourself of one. I could suggest Gleason Archer's An Encyclopedia of Biblical Difficulties which runs close to 500 pages. Many skeptics and freethinkers who are on the fence about the validity of the Christian Bible have crossed the line into skepticism after reading such collections of "how it could have been" tactics.
Alternately you could check out the Web. I might suggest The Secular Web and do a search for "genealogy".
ilyatur said:The Messiah is referred to a "the branch" in Isaiah 11:1, Jeremiah 23:5, 33:5; and probably Zechariah 3:8; 6:12. The consonants in the word "branch" are identical to those in "Nazarene" (the Hebrew Scriptures were originally written without consonants). In Matthew's culture, the similarity would be considered meaningful.
No doubt this won't pass muster in Granite's Rules Of Authentic Prophecy, but we'll get over it just fine.
ilyatur said:But the name of the town--as it was called by native Nazarenes--would have been known by Matthew.
The citation is an allusion to the word "branch" in the scriptures I posted.Zakath said:But no scripture has ever been found in either Masoretic or Septuagint versions to serve as the basis for the author of Matthew's gospel's "citation".
Secondly, to my admittedly limited knowledge, not a single published translation of the NT cites your verses as support for Matthew's spurious quote. It is not unreasonable that, after 1500 years of translating, someone on a translation team would have entered such an explanation as a footnote at least. The fact that no such reference exists leads me to believe that it is not quite as much of an "open and shut case" as you might like to believe.
"Nazarene" sounds like "branch". That was the whole point of the earlier post. The verse has been exegeted this way since antiquity.granite1010 said:Sorry, that dog don't hunt. Matthew was pointing to a very specific town (which had a lousy reputation). He didn't say that the messiah would be called "the branch." Try again.
They wanted to hear you play the kazoo.granite1010 said:I have to ask why translators the world and ages over have insisted on using "Nazarene" here when "branch" would suffice and be a lot clearer (not to say more accurate).
Hmmmm...
So in other words, they had the choice between "Nazarene" and "branch" and they picked "Nazarene" because it backed up their dogma.ilyatur said:"Nazarene" sounds like "branch". That was the whole point of the earlier post. The verse has been exegeted this way since antiquity.
ilyatur said:"Nazarene" sounds like "branch". That was the whole point of the earlier post. The verse has been exegeted this way since antiquity.
Interesting. It would have been more convincing if Jesus actually was from Nazareth. Doesn't Matthew also say he wasn't from Nazareth, but Bethlehem?ilyatur said:"Nazarene" sounds like "branch". That was the whole point of the earlier post. The verse has been exegeted this way since antiquity.