musterion
Well-known member
Yep :thumb:
F-R-A-U-D...
Forever
Ranting
About
Understanding
Dispensationalism
A suggestion...
Forever
Railing
Against
Unrefuted
Dispensationalism
Yep :thumb:
F-R-A-U-D...
Forever
Ranting
About
Understanding
Dispensationalism
Fantasy just as I expected. Seems to be the world madist live in. :chuckle:
A suggestion...
Forever
Railing
Against
Unrefuted
Dispensationalism
The name of this fantasy is TRUTH.
I'd like to challenge you on that.
If I'm taking those words out of context on their face value then what did he mean? Go ahead and tell us what he meant when he said he was not sent to baptize?That's what I mean by it's speculation or maybe a better word deduction. That's taking Paul's words out of context then when his actions go against those words a conclusion is drawn to reconcile. The rcc does the same thing with Matt. 16:18 making Peter the head of the church. They ignore context and verses that are in conflict with that deduction. I think it's better to consider Paul's words within the context of what he's talking about then we can understand why he said it. When we do that it's then in agreement with his practice of baptizing.
Actually, they had only been baptized with John's baptism, which clearly was not the one baptism.:dunce::duh:To take the stand that there is one baptism and Paul was not sent to baptize is in conflict with him practicing baptism. Whenever Paul practiced something that isn't part of the gospel, we are given an explanation as to why he did it. We never see that with him baptizing. In Acts 19 he even baptizes them after they had already been baptized. So that doesn't agree with "he wasn't sent to baptize" when he does it even though they had already been baptized. It also doesn't agree with "he did it to compromise" why would he need to compromise when they had already been baptized.
What deduction? I said "induce," not "deduce."Too much conflict to support the deduction.
How convenient.Good point. I don't have a problem basing something on a single verse when that verse is taken in context and isn't in conflict with other verses. Therefore no deduction is necessary.
Prove it.1) The new Covenant isn't for the body of Christ. 1 Corinthians 11 refutes this directly.
:hammer:Catholicism is true, and "Catholics on the way to full communion" is true.
What is the New Covenant?This is a ridiculous statement, and there is nothing direct about it. The topic is privileged people at christian potlucks who take too much too eat or are always first. "One gets hungry; another gets drunk." Paul was showing how generous Christ was about sharing with all. What he said about the new covenant there applies as much to the apostles as to the Corinthians as to us.
The mark of amateur and Dispensational theology is to unget the passage it is dealing with. Every which way but the plain meaning. Always some artificial distinction generated by some system somewhere else.
:chuckle:Yep :thumb:
F-R-A-U-D...
Forever
Ranting
About
Understanding
Dispensationalism
Scripture?The New Covenant was the accomplishment of Christ for believers. It was between God and Christ and Christ was acting on our part. We enjoy justification from sins and eternal life through Christ. He condensed it all down by saying his blood (suffering) was the completion of the new covenant, at the last supper.
This gospel also brings the Spirit of God for God's work. He renovates the believer in a completely different way than the law did, and he spreads the message all over the earth through the Spirit.
Scripture?
This is a ridiculous statement, and there is nothing direct about it. The topic is privileged people at christian potlucks who take too much too eat or are always first. "One gets hungry; another gets drunk." Paul was showing how generous Christ was about sharing with all. What he said about the new covenant there applies as much to the apostles as to the Corinthians as to us.
The mark of amateur and Dispensational theology is to unget the passage it is dealing with. Every which way but the plain meaning. Always some artificial distinction generated by some system somewhere else.
23 For I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread, 24 and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body, which is for[f] you. Do this in remembrance of me.”[g] 25 In the same way also he took the cup, after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.”
1. You just said nothing.
2. Irrelevant, that it is "constructed by man," as to whether it is true, unless you assume that God is down here teaching us,"constructing," in person.
Moron. Sit.
LOL.. This is pure denial by the MAD proponent, ignoring:
Paul does chide them for failing to act properly regarding this sacrament, but then he reaffirms their participation in the new Covenant by telling them that they are, in fact, to drink from its cup.
Catholicism is true, and "Catholics on the way to full communion" is true.
Hmm! Well I've never thought of it like that!:hammer:
Did you mean "lain:"?Hmm! Well I've never thought of it like that!
Plain.
Is every cup used at "communion" the new covenant in His blood? Or was it just the first one? Does it count if the cup contains grape juice instead of wine? And where does Paul tell then that they are to drink from said cup?LOL.. This is pure denial by the MAD proponent, ignoring:
Paul does chide them for failing to act properly regarding this sacrament, but then he reaffirms their participation in the new Covenant by telling them that they are, in fact, to drink from its cup.