Interplanner
Well-known member
So did Jesus preach 2 gospels whilst he was in the flesh?
No, he was the Lamb of God. There was a way for Israel to save its country, but that wasn't the gospel, no matter how good that news was.
So did Jesus preach 2 gospels whilst he was in the flesh?
So did Jesus preach 2 gospels whilst he was in the flesh?
Ah right, so which gospel did he preach to the Samaritans?Nope. The LORD Jesus and His disciples proclaimed the 'good news' of the nearness of the prophesied Messianic Davidic Kingdom to Israel.
Nope. The LORD Jesus and His disciples proclaimed the 'good news' of the nearness of the prophesied Messianic Davidic Kingdom to Israel.
I believe that Jesus preached the gospel, and Paul preached the same gospel. Only he preached it to the gentiles who didn't know the laws.
Not really, no your haven't, i will answer yours, but I asked you first, did Jesus whilst he was in the flesh preach one or two gospels?
But not in the ordinary sense.
Ah right, so which gospel did he preach to the Samaritans?
No, he was the Lamb of God. There was a way for Israel to save its country, but that wasn't the gospel, no matter how good the news was.
So Christ preached faith in His death for sin and resurrection for righteousness for all who believe, Jew and Gentile without any distinction whatsoever, BEFORE the Cross?
Jesus spoke to the woman at the well, and she brought the men from Samaria to him, what gospel did he preach to them in the two days that was with them?When and where?
Show me where Jesus preached that we have to have faith in his death on the cross?
No one preached that we are saved by having faith in the death of Jesus on the cross. Where does it say that in the Bible?That's the point. He didn't.
But Paul preached exactly that as the saving Good News (1 Cor 15:3-4).
So when you say there is only ONE saving Good News in all of the N.T., you're automatically saying they all preached the same thing.
They didn't. They didn't even call all of the good newses by the same name.
Yet you insist there's only one.
I can't make it any clearer to you than that. Maybe someone else can help you if you still don't see the implications of what you said.
But not in the ordinary sense. He is full of making that kind of qualification: it will not come with marked signs etc./Luk 21:25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;
Luk 21:26 Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.
Luk 21:27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
Luk 21:28 And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh.
It certainly looks like marked signs to me....in the ordinary sense.
This is the fundamental error that Ryrie tried to make an official doctrine in his 2P2P classic D'ISM TODAY
Your fundamental error runs all the way back to the influence of the pagan Greek philosopher Ammonius Saccas over the Alexandrian theologian Origen in the 2nd and 3rd century
No one preached that we are saved by having faith in the death of Jesus on the cross. Where does it say that in the Bible?
We are saved by the grace of God through faith, that's faith in God and Christ not faith in his death on the cross!
Exactly, it's not in the BibleBye.
Jesus spoke to the woman at the well, and she brought the men from Samaria to him, what gospel did he preach to them in the two days that was with them?
He demonstrated that He was the prophesied Messiah of Israel and she believed it.
So salvation can be lost and once that happens a person is lost forever?
Unless Jesus is the One who commanded it be out? Like He changed the rules on circumcision or food, for instance.
Because, really, there is nothing inherently moral or righteous about baptism in and of itself.
But the question does rise: why were the 12 apostles to the 12 tribes of Israel commanded to baptize, and yet Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles, was not?
- Jesus healed her daughter in spite of the fact He was not sent to her people. He did so because her faith was so strong, even in the face of being called a dog, by Jesus, by the way. That's right, Jesus did reject her, at first. She kept coming. Her faith was persistent, and so was she. That is why He granted her request.
- In post 4841598 you used a single verse out of context.
If it's not then Paul was a fraud.
:doh:
1.What he said was that Paul saying that he [Paul] was not sent to baptize was obviously in reference to what Christ did and did not send Paul to do.
2.But it would mean that the command of baptism wasn't to all, and therefore you are assuming it is to you. So, can you support that assumption?
3.For instance, as we've shown, Jesus was sent to Israel and not the Gentiles in His time on Earth. But many of the things He said in ministering to them are applicable to the Body of Christ in this present dispensation. While others are not.
4.Did you miss the rest of his response? That wasn't a "one word answer" in the slightest. He actually agreed with you, and you responded as though he was being argumentative. If this is how you treat Scripture no wonder you're so ignorant* of what it says.
I don't see how one could reject Him having known Him.
But that's beside the point right now. This passage says it's impossible to be renewed to repentance once one has fallen away after having tasted the heavenly gift, etc. Explain that.
I suppose my initial question would be, why do you care so much about baptism? Baptism has never been a prerequisite for salvation, nor is it today.