Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
There are some, like the poster who goes by the name of "God's Truth," who say that the "works of law" in the following verse is only in regard to the ceremonial ordinances of purification under the law of Moses:
Here Paul speaks of "the works of law" and according to him that law is a "knowledge of sin." It is the moral law which is the knowledge of sin, as witnessed by what Paul said later in the same epistle:
Paul says that it was the moral law (thou shalt not covet) which resulted in him having the knowledge of sin. So in the following verse when Paul refers to "law" he is referring to the moral law:
Therefore, Paul is saying that no one is declared righteous in the eyes of God by keeping the moral law. Then just eight verses later Paul makes it plain that a person's justification is apart from the works of the same law, the moral law:
"therefore do we reckon a man to be declared righteous by faith, apart from works of law" (Ro.3:28).
So according to Paul a person is declared righteous in the eyes of God and that righteouness has nothing to do with keeping the moral law. Paul continues his discourse on this subject where he speaks of the same "works" when speaking of grace:
"For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness" (Ro.4:3-5).
From this we can understand that keeping the moral law plays no part in one's salvation. We can also understand that the "works" in the following passage is also speaking of the moral law:
"So too, at the present time there is a remnant chosen by grace. And if by grace, then it cannot be based on works; if it were, grace would no longer be grace" (Ro.11:6).
"wherefore by works of law shall no flesh be declared righteous before Him, for through law is a knowledge of sin" (Ro.3:20).
Here Paul speaks of "the works of law" and according to him that law is a "knowledge of sin." It is the moral law which is the knowledge of sin, as witnessed by what Paul said later in the same epistle:
"What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet" (Ro.7:7).
Paul says that it was the moral law (thou shalt not covet) which resulted in him having the knowledge of sin. So in the following verse when Paul refers to "law" he is referring to the moral law:
"wherefore by works of law shall no flesh be declared righteous before Him, for through law is a knowledge of sin" (Ro.3:20).
Therefore, Paul is saying that no one is declared righteous in the eyes of God by keeping the moral law. Then just eight verses later Paul makes it plain that a person's justification is apart from the works of the same law, the moral law:
"therefore do we reckon a man to be declared righteous by faith, apart from works of law" (Ro.3:28).
So according to Paul a person is declared righteous in the eyes of God and that righteouness has nothing to do with keeping the moral law. Paul continues his discourse on this subject where he speaks of the same "works" when speaking of grace:
"For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness" (Ro.4:3-5).
From this we can understand that keeping the moral law plays no part in one's salvation. We can also understand that the "works" in the following passage is also speaking of the moral law:
"So too, at the present time there is a remnant chosen by grace. And if by grace, then it cannot be based on works; if it were, grace would no longer be grace" (Ro.11:6).
Last edited:
