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"His people" is referring to Israel.It says, "He shall save His people from their sins." Matthew 1:21 (KJV)
That does NOT means that others cannot also be saved from their sins.
"His people" is referring to Israel.It says, "He shall save His people from their sins." Matthew 1:21 (KJV)
Jesus has been saving His people from their sins since the time of Adam who looked with an eye of faith to Him while making the sacrificial offerings. Israel, ie the church, will be spared the plagues of God which will destroy the wicked at the end of the world but this salvation from bodily suffering is not salvation from sin. The prophecy was, "He shall save His people from their sins."
"His people" is referring to Israel.
That does NOT means that others cannot also be saved from their sins.
The NT is not splintered in to groups as such. That's why it is about the same, one salvation of all of them by the same kind of faith.
I saw Phenomenal Turmoil open for Existential Angst.
The NT is not splintered in to groups as such. That's why it is about the same, one salvation of all of them by the same kind of faith.
Dude, grunge is so 90s
:guitar:
You don't even know that the new testament is.The NT is not splintered in to groups as such. That's why it is about the same, one salvation of all of them by the same kind of faith.
You don't even know that the new testament is.
Didn't he say Christ is the New Covenant?
Quite a few here do. I think that he is one of them.Didn't he say Christ is the New Covenant?
The NT is not splintered in to groups as such. That's why it is about the same, one salvation of all of them by the same kind of faith.
In what way does He save His people Israel from their sins, as compared to the way in which He saves His Body from ours? What's the difference between the saving of the one vs. the saving of the other, from our sins?"His people" is referring to Israel.
That does NOT means that others cannot also be saved from their sins.
That is irrelevant to the meaning of "His people".In what way does He save His people Israel from their sins, as compared to the way in which He saves His Body from ours? What's the difference between the saving of the one vs. the saving of the other, from our sins?
In what way does He save His people Israel from their sins, as compared to the way in which He saves His Body from ours? What's the difference between the saving of the one vs. the saving of the other, from our sins?
So does that mean, "There is no difference between how He saves His people Israel from their sins, and how He saves His Body the Church, from ours?"That is irrelevant to the meaning of "His people".
Not everything in the Bible is about each individuals sins.
It depends on whether you are taking about individuals or the nation.So does that mean, "There is no difference between how He saves His people Israel from their sins, and how He saves His Body the Church, from ours?"
How does the Lord save from their sins, the following?It depends on whether you are taking about individuals or the nation.
The angel who appeared to Joseph said concerning Jesus, "...thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins," Matthew 1:21. Jesus never made a mistake of converting a soul and leaving it under the power of sin. Those who are converted cease to wilfully sin, ie to break God's commandments since sin is defined as "the transgression of the law" - 1John 3:4. The children of God are not saved by their obedience but rather the obedience is the fruit of their new life. Our fruits are our words and deeds.