Error-asserting that the LORD God did away with His "holy law and then abolishes it," citing Colossians 2:14 KJV. Colossians 2:14 KJV does not say that the LORD God did away/abolished the law-it says that "the handwriting of ordinances" was blotted out-this is not a reference to the law, that was blotted out(discussed on numerous threads).
If the law was blotted out/did away, everyone would be saved:
1 John 3:4 KJV Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
So, one of the definitions of sin is " the transgression of the law."
With me?
Now:
Romans 4:15 KJV because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
Romans 5:13 KJV (for until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Thus, since sin is the transgression of the law, and, if it is true that there is no more "God's holy law," then, where there is no law, there is no transgression, whereby anyone can be accused, and sin cannot be imputed, if there is no law. Secular wise, for eg., if there is no law against speeding/going over a certain speed, no one can be charged with speeding/breaking a law-there is no law against speeding-no transgression.