Has the Church Replaced Israel ?

[JudgeRightly]

The Church is Israel

WHICH church? There are at least TWO in the New Testament. Conflating them only brings confusion.

because, Christ the Head of His Body the Church, is also likewise the Mediator of the New Covenant which only the blessings of are promised to Israel.

So what? Can't Christ be those things WITHOUT those things being the same thing?

Christ is the Head of the Church Eph 5:23

For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.

This same Christ is the mediator of the New Covenant/Testament Heb 12:24

And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.

1 Tim 2:5

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Neither of these passages support your position.

The Body of People which benefit from their interest in the New Covenant Promises through the Mediator is Israel Heb 8:6-13.

The New Covenant was made SPECIFICALLY with Israel, not "men."

 

[beloved57]

We know that the Church under the NT is the fulfillment of Israel from the OT, because Jesus Christ is their High Priest at the Right Hand of God. Now the writer of the Book of Hebrews, writing to the elect remnant of jews in the early church, writes that Christ as the New Covenant Mediator, the Mediator of the New Covenant, which was promised to the House of Israel, that He has fulfilled many of those promises by His Death, and is now at the right Hand of God ! Heb 8:6

But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

Heb 12:24

And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.

Heb 8:1

Now of the things which we have spoken this is the sum: We have such an high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens;

Is not this the same Jesus at the right hand of God as per Paul writing to the gentile church in rome ? Rom 8:34

Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.

Isnt He there making Intercession for the saints Rom 1:7

To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.

Rom 8:27

And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

Isnt it therefore the same people being spoken of in the Hebrews letter Heb 7:25

Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

Is there a dichtomy in Jesus being at the right hand of God for two different people, the Church, then ethnic jews ? Is He seperating His Intercession activity, interceding for the Church on the right, and ethnic jews on the left ?

God forbid ! They are all one people, the Israel of God !

 

[beloved57]

Paul writing to a gentile church in Colossi writes to them Col 3:1

If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.

In Vs 12 he calls them the elect of God 12 Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;

 

[JudgeRightly]

We know that the Church under the NT is the fulfillment of Israel from the OT, because Jesus Christ is their High Priest at the Right Hand of God. Now the writer of the Book of Hebrews, writing to the elect remnant of jews in the early church, writes that Christ as the New Covenant Mediator, the Mediator of the New Covenant, which was promised to the House of Israel, that He has fulfilled many of those promises by His Death, and is now at the right Hand of God ! Heb 8:6

But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

Heb 12:24

And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.

Heb 8:1

Now of the things which we have spoken this is the sum: We have such an high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens;

AMEN!

The only problem is that what you mean by "Church" is "the Body of Christ," and not "the congregation of Israel".

Is not this the same Jesus at the right hand of God as per Paul writing to the gentile church in rome ? Rom 8:34

Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.

Isnt He there making Intercession for the saints Rom 1:7

To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.

Rom 8:27

And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

Yes, it is indeed the same Jesus.

Isnt it therefore the same people being spoken of in the Hebrews letter

No, it is not the same people.

Heb 7:25

Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

Amen!

Is there a dichotomy in Jesus being at the right hand of God for two different people,

No, there is not. The New Covenant was put on hold at Paul's conversion, and while those who were under it remained in it for the rest of their lives, access to that New Covenant was taken away temporarily, and no one was able to enter into it, nor has been able to since then. In exchange, access to God (what the New Covenant was for) was made available to the entire world, through faith in Jesus Christ, rather than through circumcision of the flesh. Before, one had to circumcise and become a Jew in order to enter into what was a corporate relationship with God (think group, rather than individual), but now, anyone individually may enter into a relationship with God, without having to become a Jew, by the grace of God.

the Church, then ethnic jews?

This is the problem with conflating the two churches that are present in the New Testament. One is the Church of Israel, made up of ONLY JEWS and Proselytes. The other is the Church of the Body of Christ, which is NEITHER JEW NOR GENTILE, as per Paul.

Is He separating His Intercession activity, interceding for the Church on the right, and ethnic jews on the left?

NO! There is only ONE active group at a time!

God forbid! They are all one people, the Israel of God !

No, they're not! There are TWO different groups, but ONLY ONE exists currently, the Body of Christ. The other has been put on hold, and is inaccessible, and the people who DID get into it when it WAS available are all in Heaven!

Paul writing to a gentile church in Colossi writes to them Col 3:1

If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.

In Vs 12 he calls them the elect of God 12 Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;

So what? It doesn't mean they're Israel.

 

[beloved57]

The Church of Christ, Hid Body and Israel are the same because, the Gentiles that are now called under the NC times initiated by the Death of Christ Matt 26:28

28 For this is my blood of the new testament/covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

That they are joint partakers of the New Covenant Promises, which are Gospel Promises, made to the House of Israel and Judah Jer 31:31

Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

Gentiles were secretly included in this New Covenant Gospel promises, which Paul clarified here Eph 3:1-6

For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,

2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words,

4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)

5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

The Gospel is a publication of what God has guaranteed in covenant to His Chosen people;

 

[Hoping]

WHICH church? There are at least TWO in the New Testament. Conflating them only brings confusion.

Eph 2 tells us we are all one.
It is written..."For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:" (Eph 2:14, 16)
Why do you suppose your doctrine wants or needs its kind of division?

The New Covenant was made SPECIFICALLY with Israel, not "men."

The believers from Israel are not men?
Personally, I, a Gentile, am grateful to be a part of God's new covenant.

 

[JudgeRightly]

The Church of Christ, His Body and Israel are the same

No, they're not.

because, the Gentiles that are now called under the NC times initiated by the Death of Christ

Gentiles had always been able to enter into covenant relationship with God by circumcising. Nothing changed in that respect with the New Covenant.

The Gospel of grace, however, did away with circumcision as a means to enter into relationship with God, and is therefore NOT the New Covenant.

Matt 26:28

28 For this is my blood of the new testament/covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

The New Covenant was made with the same group as the old one, Israel. It was not made with the Gentiles (remember, Gentiles had to become Proselytes, to become Jews, in order to partake of the New and old covenants.

That they are joint partakers of the New Covenant Promises,

False.

which are Gospel Promises,

False.

made to the House of Israel and Judah

No, the members of the Body of Christ are NOT partakers of the New Covenant.

Jer 31:31

Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

With Israel and the house of Judah, not with Gentiles. In order for a Gentile to enter into that covenant, he had to become a citizen of Israel, which meant circumcision and keeping the law.

Gentiles were secretly included in this New Covenant Gospel promises,

No, they weren't, for the reasons explained above.

which Paul clarified here Eph 3:1-6

For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words,
4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;
6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

This passage doesn't say what you want it to say.

The Gospel is a publication of what God has guaranteed in covenant to His Chosen people;

Which gospel? Which people?

Both answers matter.

 

[Hoping]

This passage doesn't say what you want it to say.

It sure does.
Eph 3:1-6 expounds on Eph 2:11-22.
The Gentile faithful in Christ have been made equal to the Jewish faithful in Christ.
We are all of one body, one foundation, and with one Head.

That passage just doesn't say what you want it to say.

 

[JudgeRightly]

It sure does.

Saying it doesn't make it so.

Eph 3:1-6 expounds on Eph 2:11-22.

Not quite.

The Gentile faithful in Christ have been made equal to the Jewish faithful in Christ.

No.

There is no such thing as Jew or Gentile in the Body of Christ.

Why is that so hard for your brain to grasp?

We are all of one body, one foundation, and with one Head.

Yes, those in the Body of Christ are one body with one head. No idea what you mean by "one foundation."

That passage just doesn't say what you want it to say.

Saying it doesn't make it so.

 

[JudgeRightly]

Eph 2 tells us we are all one.

Yes, WE being THE BODY OF CHRIST.

NOT those under the New Covenant, Israel.

It is written..."For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:" (Eph 2:14, 16)

Which refers to the fact that now anyone can enter into a relationship with God, not just through Israel.

Why do you suppose your doctrine wants or needs its kind of division?

My answer lies in 2 Timothy 2:15.

The believers from Israel are not men?

Not what I meant and you know it.

Men, as in, "the world," rather than a specific group.

Personally, I, a Gentile, am grateful to be a part of God's new covenant.

Then you are part of no covenant at all, since God's New Covenant with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34) is not accessible to anyone since Paul's conversion (Romans 11:11-32).

 

[Hoping]

Yes, WE being THE BODY OF CHRIST.

NOT those under the New Covenant, Israel.

Your implication then is that only unbelieving Israelites are under the New Covenant?
I feel you are mistaken, as this was the promise of the NC in Jeremiah..."But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more." (Jer 31:33-34)
Don't you think the Law is written in your heart?
Is not God your God?
Is God still remembering your past sins?
If your answers are "NO", You have only my pity.

Which refers to the fact that now anyone can enter into a relationship with God, not just through Israel.

That and that all the converted are of one Body.
Whether they were once Gentile or Israelite.

My answer lies in 2 Timothy 2:15.

So you accept a notion that the "respect of persons" is OK, biblically?

Then you are part of no covenant at all, since God's New Covenant with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34) is not accessible to anyone since Paul's conversion (Romans 11:11-32).

I am part of the NC/NT, along with all my converted brothers from Israel.
The only ones still under the OC/OT are the unbelieving Israelites.
Those trying, unsuccessfully, to attain salvation by the works of the Mosaic Law.
The only ones with no C. or T. are unbelievers of either.

 

[Hoping]

Saying it doesn't make it so.

Saying it isn't doesn't won't change that it does.

Not quite.

Quite.

No.
There is no such thing as Jew or Gentile in the Body of Christ.
Why is that so hard for your brain to grasp?

Why is so hard for you to grasp that both are in the Body of Christ?
There is just no longer any division between us all.

Yes, those in the Body of Christ are one body with one head. No idea what you mean by "one foundation."

It is written in Eph 3:19-21..."Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:"

Saying it doesn't make it so.

Saying "it doesn't make it so", doesn't make it false.

 

[JudgeRightly]

Your implication then is that only unbelieving Israelites are under the New Covenant?

Wrong. How in the world did you arrive at that conclusion?

Believing Israelites are under the New Covenant. Prior to God cutting off unbelieving, Israel, this was how to enter into a relationship with God. Prior to God cutting off unbelieving Israel, there was no such thing as the Body of Christ, as it was a mystery kept secret since the foundation of the world.

However, AFTER God cut off unbelieving Israel, the New Covenant was made unavailable to EVERYONE, and God revealed the mystery to Paul, who became the first member of the Body of Christ, and ANYONE who believed through Paul's dispensation of hus gospel became a member of the Body of Christ.

There's no overlap of the people who entered into a relationship with God. A person was (emphasis on the past tense) either under the New Covenant, or a person was saved by grace. Those who were under the New Covenant did not leave their relationship with God to have a different relationship with Him. And Paul specifically warned people about trying to keep the law (which was part of the New Covenant).

I feel you are mistaken,

Facts don't care about your feelings.

as this was the promise of the NC in Jeremiah..."But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more." (Jer 31:33-34)

You missed a few verses. Start with verse 31:

“Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah—not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the Lord.But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My law in their minds, and write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.No more shall every man teach his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they all shall know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them, says the Lord . For I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.” - Jeremiah 31:31-34 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah31:31-34&version=NKJV

Notice "house of Israel" and "house of Judah." As far as I'm aware, you are not part of either of those houses, and as you have explicitly stated here in this very thread not two posts ago, you are a GENTILE.

That makes you, BY DEFINITION, "not of the house of Israel."

Don't you think the Law is written in your heart?

It is.

Is not God your God?

He is.

Is God still remembering your past sins?

Irrelevant, since my sins are forgiven, and any sin I commit is not imputed to my account because of what Christ did.

If your answers are "NO", You have only my pity.

I don't need the pity of someone who can't understand the difference between law and grace.

That and that all the converted are of one Body.

WRONG.

Whether they were once Gentile or Israelite.

Supra.

So you accept a notion that the "respect of persons" is OK, biblically?

You have no idea what that even is referring to, do you.

I am part of the NC/NT,

No, you're not.

along with all my converted brothers from Israel.

No, they're not.

The only ones still under the OC/OT are the unbelieving Israelites.

True, specifically talking about Israel.

Those trying, unsuccessfully, to attain salvation by the works of the Mosaic Law.

Sounds like you.

The only ones with no C. or T. are unbelievers of either.

I have no idea what you're talking about at this point.

Saying it isn't doesn't won't change that it does.

Quite.

Childish.

Why is so hard for you to grasp that both are in the Body of Christ?

Because Paul says there are neither in the Body of Christ.

For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ.There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.And if you are Christ’s, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise. - Galatians 3:26-29 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians3:26-29&version=NKJV

Do not lie to one another, since you have put off the old man with his deeds,and have put on the new man who is renewed in knowledge according to the image of Him who created him,where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcised nor uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave nor free, but Christ is all and in all. - Colossians 3:9-11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Colossians3:9-11&version=NKJV

There is just no longer any division between us all.

Within the Body of Christ. But under the New Covenant, there IS that division. Thus, the Body of Christ CANNOT be under the New Covenant, for things that are different are not the same.

It is written in Eph 3:19-21..."Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:"

Fellow citizens of the overarching Household of God, which encompasses BOTH the Body of Christ and Israel, which are not the same thing!

Saying "it doesn't make it so", doesn't make it false.

More childishness.

 

[Hoping]

Wrong. How in the world did you arrive at that conclusion?

Believing Israelites are under the New Covenant. Prior to God cutting off unbelieving, Israel, this was how to enter into a relationship with God. Prior to God cutting off unbelieving Israel, there was no such thing as the Body of Christ, as it was a mystery kept secret since the foundation of the world.

However, AFTER God cut off unbelieving Israel, the New Covenant was made unavailable to EVERYONE, and God revealed the mystery to Paul, who became the first member of the Body of Christ, and ANYONE who believed through Paul's dispensation of hus gospel became a member of the Body of Christ.

There's no overlap of the people who entered into a relationship with God. A person was (emphasis on the past tense) either under the New Covenant, or a person was saved by grace. Those who were under the New Covenant did not leave their relationship with God to have a different relationship with Him. And Paul specifically warned people about trying to keep the law (which was part of the New Covenant).



Facts don't care about your feelings.



You missed a few verses. Start with verse 31:

“Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah—not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the Lord.But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My law in their minds, and write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.No more shall every man teach his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they all shall know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them, says the Lord . For I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.” - Jeremiah 31:31-34 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah31:31-34&version=NKJV
Notice "house of Israel" and "house of Judah." As far as I'm aware, you are not part of either of those houses, and as you have explicitly stated here in this very thread not two posts ago, you are a GENTILE.
That makes you, BY DEFINITION, "not of the house of Israel."
It is.
e is.
Irrelevant, since my sins are forgiven, and any sin I commit is not imputed to my account because of what Christ did.
I don't need the pity of someone who can't understand the difference between law and grace.
WRONG.
You have no idea what that even is referring to, do you.
No, you're not.
o, they're not.
hrist Jesus.And if you are Christ’s, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise. - Galatians 3:26-29 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians3:26-29&version=NKJV

Do not lie to one another, since you have put off the old man with his deeds,and have put on the new man who is renewed in knowledge according to the image of Him who created him,where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcised nor uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave nor free, but Christ is all and in all. - Colossians 3:9-11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Colossians3:9-11&version=NKJV

I feel your whole doctrine of divisiveness is false.
Everyone who has truly repented of sin and been baptized into Christ is a Christian.

 

[JudgeRightly]

I feel your whole doctrine of divisiveness is false.

Facts don't care about your feelings.

Everyone who has truly repented of sin

What constitutes "truly repenting of sin"?

Because I don't find that in the bible. What I find is Romans 10:9-10. What I find is Ephesians 2:8-9.

and been baptized into Christ

Baptized how? Water? Water baptisms (plural) were something commanded of Israel by God, not of the Body of Christ.

is a Christian.

Not according to your definition.

 

[Hoping]

Facts don't care about your feelings.

My feelings are backed up with facts.

What constitutes "truly repenting of sin"?

Repentance from sin is turning from sin permanently.

Because I don't find that in the bible. What I find is Romans 10:9-10. What I find is Ephesians 2:8-9.

Look up "repent" in the dictionary.

Baptized how? Water? Water baptisms (plural) were something commanded of Israel by God, not of the Body of Christ.

Water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. (Acts 2:38, Acts 10:47, Acts 19:1-5, Acts 22:16)

Not according to your definition.

It is the description I just gave, so you are in error.

 

[JudgeRightly]

My feelings are backed up with facts.

Except they're not.

Repentance from sin is turning from sin permanently.

No, it's not. Repentance from sin is simply turning away from sin.

Look up "repent" in the dictionary.

I know what it means. It means to change one's mind.

If anyone needs to look it up, it's you.

Water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. (Acts 2:38, Acts 10:47, Acts 19:1-5, Acts 22:16)

Then why did Paul say it wasn't necessary to be water baptized?

It is the description I just gave, so you are in error.

False.

 

[Hoping]

Except they're not.

But they are.

No, it's not. Repentance from sin is simply turning away from sin.

Your scope is too narrowminded.
On the other hand, if one changes their minds about their love for sin, they won;\'t ever sin again.

I know what it means. It means to change one's mind.
If anyone needs to look it up, it's you.

Supra.

Then why did Paul say it wasn't necessary to be water baptized?

Where?
If he thought it unnecessary, why did he baptize the twelve at Ephesus, the Thyatiran jailer, or those at Corinth?

False.

Our opinions differ.

 

[JudgeRightly]

But they are.

The Bible says otherwise.

Your scope is too narrowminded.

No, it's not.

On the other hand, if one changes their minds about their love for sin, they won;\'t ever sin again.

Changing one's mind does not make one incapable of sinning.

Where?

I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius,lest anyone should say that I had baptized in my own name.Yes, I also baptized the household of Stephanas. Besides, I do not know whether I baptized any other.For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect. - 1 Corinthians 1:14-17 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1Corinthians1:14-17&version=NKJV

Why would Paul thank God for not water baptizing ANYONE (with a few exceptions) if water baptism was required? Exceptions prove the rule. Water baptism is not required. And in fact, it was one of the many works of the law required of Israel.

If he thought it unnecessary, why did he baptize the twelve at Ephesus, the Thyatiran jailer, or those at Corinth?

Because at that point in time, He was still new to the gospel of grace. Remember, Paul was a Jew who grew up in the law of Israel. Much of what Christ gave to him (the dispensation, if you will) was foreign to him, and so it would have taken time for him to learn the ins and outs of what Christ had taught him, to fully comprehend what it means to be saved by grace.

Did Paul Water Baptize?

graceambassadors.com

Our opinions differ.

The problem with this is that I'm not talking about my opinions. I'm literally telling you what the Bible says, and all you have is your opinions that say otherwise.

 

[Hoping]

The Bible says otherwise.

Put it to the test.

No, it's not.

Our opinions differ.

Changing one's mind does not make one incapable of sinning.

You are right.
But if you turn from sin you don't go back to it.
If one does go back, it wasn't a repentance from sin.

I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius,lest anyone should say that I had baptized in my own name.Yes, I also baptized the household of Stephanas. Besides, I do not know whether I baptized any other.For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect. - 1 Corinthians 1:14-17 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1Corinthians1:14-17&version=NKJV
Why would Paul thank God for not water baptizing ANYONE (with a few exceptions) if water baptism was required? Exceptions prove the rule. Water baptism is not required. And in fact, it was one of the many works of the law required of Israel.

He was as you put it "glad" because the Corinthians were separating themselves along the lines of who had baptized them with water.
"Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name." (1 Cor 1:15)
That is the reason Paul gave.

Because at that point in time, He was still new to the gospel of grace. Remember, Paul was a Jew who grew up in the law of Israel. Much of what Christ gave to him (the dispensation, if you will) was foreign to him, and so it would have taken time for him to learn the ins and outs of what Christ had taught him, to fully comprehend what it means to be saved by grace.

The gospel of grace has been in force since Gen 6:8..."But Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord."

The problem with this is that I'm not talking about my opinions. I'm literally telling you what the Bible says, and all you have is your opinions that say otherwise.

You are telling me what some men have told you to think.
Quite frankly, so am I.
So, do those who teach you still commit sin?
My pastor and teachers, by the power of the Holy Ghost, don't...thanks be to God, in the name of Jesus Christ!