2 Corinthians 5:14-15: "For the love of Christ controls us, having concluded this, that one died for all, therefore all died; and He died for all, that they who live should no longer live for themselves, but for Him who died and rose again on their behalf."
At first glance the phrase*"He died for all" would lead you to think that Jesus died for every individual who has ever lived. But upon a closer look we see something different revealed. When Paul speaks of people dying, in relation to the death of Christ, he is speaking of the Christians who have died in Christ:*"Now if we have died with Christ..."*(Rom. 6:8);*"If you have died with Christ to the elementary principles of the world..."*(Col. 2:20);*"For you have died and your life is hidden with Christ in God"*(Col. 3:3);*"It is a trustworthy statement: For if we died with Him, we shall also live with Him"*(2 Tim. 2:11). The only ones who have died with Christ are the believers, not the unbelievers. Therefore, this verse can only make sense if it is understood that the "all" spoken of is not everyone who has ever lived, but only the Christians:*"...that one (Jesus) died for all (the Christians), therefore all (the Christians) died..."
But, you might ask, "If God meant only the Christians, then why did He use the word ‘all'?" I believe it is because from all eternity God knew who He had chosen to be the elect and the eternal plan of redemption was carried out to reclaim "all" He had chosen. Therefore, the "all" to Him is the all for which He intended the death of Christ to atone.
http://www.calvinistcorner.com/all-men-saved.htm