Ask Mr. Religion
☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) 	
Gold Subscriber
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
I really don’t care to debate the topic of federal/corporate versus individual election. This is a commonly used tactic of the anti-Calvinist who is usually not thinking about things very deeply. I know that sounds harsh, but just sample any internet discussion site where Calvinists and anti-Calvinists are having, er, discussions, and you can prove these things to yourself. Generally, these folks tee up pithy statements or cherry-picked Scripture passages and do no real heavy-lifting to interpret what they are hoping bears the interpretative freight they are assuming.
Instead let me suggest how I interpret to be the essence of Eph. 1:3-14. My conclusions would be no different for Romans. I will omit any discussion of election and predestination per se, assuming that both fall into the divine decree of God.
From Ephesians, we find God choosing individuals for his own pleasure (Eph. 1:5) based upon his own will (Eph. 1:5), grace (vs. Eph. 1:6 -7), plan (Eph. 1:11), and purpose (Eph. 1:11). Also, there is nothing here indicates that God was making His decision based upon a person’s foreseen faith, works, merits, or decisions made—rather, only God’s good pleasure.
Now some will pause here and argue that Paul is speaking of some kind of corporate election. Others will argue Paul is speaking of the election of Christ instead of individual persons. For the latter, some argue that God decides that whomever freely chooses to believe in Our Lord through faith are then made part of the “elect”. How then do we reconcile the Apostle’s use of “he chose us”, “he lavished on us”, “he predestined us”? Clearly, the “us” here is not Our Lord.
Furthermore, we cannot construe “in him” (Eph. 1:7, 11, 13) to mean that somehow we are able to place ourselves “in him” (Christ). After all, we did not choose to be “in Adam”, the federal head of mankind, through whom all entered into sin (1 Cor. 15:22). Likewise, for the elect to be "in Christ" (through Christ’s agency) can only mean that Christ is the federal head of the elect. It does not mean that each individual could himself choose to be in Christ, and thus become one of the elect. Nor does it mean that Christ was the object of election to salvation.
Elsewhere in Holy Writ, we read in 1 Cor. 1:26-31:
1 Corinthians 1:26 For you see your calling, brethren, that not many wise according to the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called.
1 Corinthians 1:27 But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to put to shame the wise, and God has chosen the weak things of the world to put to shame the things which are mighty;
1 Corinthians 1:28 and the base things of the world and the things which are despised God has chosen, and the things which are not, to bring to nothing the things that are,
1 Corinthians 1:29 that no flesh should glory in His presence.
1 Corinthians 1:30 But of Him you are in Christ Jesus, who became for us wisdom from God--and righteousness and sanctification and redemption--
1 Corinthians 1:31 that, as it is written, "He who glories, let him glory in the LORD."
Note here that it is only the actions of God’s will (“But of Him…”) that the elect (“your calling”, “for us wisdom”, “for us...and righteousness") are in Christ. God’s election is an individual election.
Lastly, to assume otherwise is to misunderstand the omniscience of God, Who would know each person in a group. When God speaks of a group (Israel, Gentiles, etc.), by virtue of His omniscience God is not referring to an abstraction, but the individual sums of the group's parts. Nevertheless, there are other places in the Scriptures where God’s sovereignty over some groups is mentioned. Yet even in these cases, God’s sovereignty over every individual in that group is implied. To say that God elects a group without determining who the individuals in that group are is to deny God is omniscient.
God’s election is an individual election.
AMR
Instead let me suggest how I interpret to be the essence of Eph. 1:3-14. My conclusions would be no different for Romans. I will omit any discussion of election and predestination per se, assuming that both fall into the divine decree of God.
From Ephesians, we find God choosing individuals for his own pleasure (Eph. 1:5) based upon his own will (Eph. 1:5), grace (vs. Eph. 1:6 -7), plan (Eph. 1:11), and purpose (Eph. 1:11). Also, there is nothing here indicates that God was making His decision based upon a person’s foreseen faith, works, merits, or decisions made—rather, only God’s good pleasure.
Now some will pause here and argue that Paul is speaking of some kind of corporate election. Others will argue Paul is speaking of the election of Christ instead of individual persons. For the latter, some argue that God decides that whomever freely chooses to believe in Our Lord through faith are then made part of the “elect”. How then do we reconcile the Apostle’s use of “he chose us”, “he lavished on us”, “he predestined us”? Clearly, the “us” here is not Our Lord.
Furthermore, we cannot construe “in him” (Eph. 1:7, 11, 13) to mean that somehow we are able to place ourselves “in him” (Christ). After all, we did not choose to be “in Adam”, the federal head of mankind, through whom all entered into sin (1 Cor. 15:22). Likewise, for the elect to be "in Christ" (through Christ’s agency) can only mean that Christ is the federal head of the elect. It does not mean that each individual could himself choose to be in Christ, and thus become one of the elect. Nor does it mean that Christ was the object of election to salvation.
Elsewhere in Holy Writ, we read in 1 Cor. 1:26-31:
1 Corinthians 1:26 For you see your calling, brethren, that not many wise according to the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called.
1 Corinthians 1:27 But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to put to shame the wise, and God has chosen the weak things of the world to put to shame the things which are mighty;
1 Corinthians 1:28 and the base things of the world and the things which are despised God has chosen, and the things which are not, to bring to nothing the things that are,
1 Corinthians 1:29 that no flesh should glory in His presence.
1 Corinthians 1:30 But of Him you are in Christ Jesus, who became for us wisdom from God--and righteousness and sanctification and redemption--
1 Corinthians 1:31 that, as it is written, "He who glories, let him glory in the LORD."
Note here that it is only the actions of God’s will (“But of Him…”) that the elect (“your calling”, “for us wisdom”, “for us...and righteousness") are in Christ. God’s election is an individual election.
Lastly, to assume otherwise is to misunderstand the omniscience of God, Who would know each person in a group. When God speaks of a group (Israel, Gentiles, etc.), by virtue of His omniscience God is not referring to an abstraction, but the individual sums of the group's parts. Nevertheless, there are other places in the Scriptures where God’s sovereignty over some groups is mentioned. Yet even in these cases, God’s sovereignty over every individual in that group is implied. To say that God elects a group without determining who the individuals in that group are is to deny God is omniscient.
God’s election is an individual election.
AMR