Does Romans 7:1-3 affirm different rules for women and men regarding adultery?

Alaya

New member
It's simple. :poly: Jesus made it clear again for the Pharisees :eek:linger: who had looked to justify themselves (Mt 19:8). God gives you a portion of his spirit (lit. fire of life [Mal 2:15]). The two become one flesh (Matt. 19:5, 6). If some infidel (1 Ti 5:8) :banana: wishes to approach the Great White Throne without his fire of life, he is left with--a consuming fire. :burnlib: Good luck with that (Mal 2:16). :popcorn:

Like I said, too cheap of a religious spirit. Typical of the Catholic doctrine, and its other written materials. I don't trust your interpretation about the Holy Spirit. Simple.
 

serpentdove

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Like I said, too cheap of a religious spirit.
What's cheap about it? I owe a debt I could not pay. Jesus paid a debt he did not owe. Ps 32:2

David committed murder to cover up his adultery. :AMR: Talk about jumping out of the frying pan into the fire. :shocked:

I don't trust your interpretation about the Holy Spirit.
You shouldn't. :dizzy: Ask him yourself. :rolleyes: 1 Jn 2:27
 

Alaya

New member
What's cheap about it? I owe a debt I could not pay. Jesus paid a debt he did not owe. Ps 32:2

David committed murder to cover up his adultery. :AMR: Talk about jumping out of the frying pan into the fire. :shocked:

You shouldn't. :dizzy: Ask him yourself. :rolleyes: 1 Jn 2:27

I meant to write;"....too much....." not cheap. I tried to correct it, but it wasn't allowed to be shown, ....
 

Alaya

New member
What's cheap about it? I owe a debt I could not pay. Jesus paid a debt he did not owe. Ps 32:2

David committed murder to cover up his adultery. :AMR: Talk about jumping out of the frying pan into the fire. :shocked:

You shouldn't. :dizzy: Ask him yourself. :rolleyes: 1 Jn 2:27
I know all too well how much my sinful debt was paid. And, recheck on David. When the Prophet visited him, and God spoke to the prophet over David, saying; " ...I have given you wives, etc, etc, and I would have given you more, etc, etc...." He only killed, for one wife, but He had plenty others...
 

serpentdove

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Learn a biblical concept. When God records something :listen: it does not mean that he approves of it (e.g. Rahab, a lying whore [Josh. 2:1–24]). :plain:
 

Squeaky

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Do you not know, brothers and sisters—for I am speaking to those who know the law—that the law has authority over someone only as long as that person lives? For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.

Is it true that Paul could not have said this about men? We know that polygyny was common in the OT but I'm not aware of any cases of polyandry.

I said
It covers both. In the new testament. Marriage is one man with one woman......

1 Cor 7:2
2 Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband.
(NKJ)
 

Alaya

New member
I said
It covers both. In the new testament. Marriage is one man with one woman......

1 Cor 7:2
2 Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband.
(NKJ)

Hey! At least someone's got it,. :)
 

Alaya

New member
Learn a biblical concept. When God records something :listen: it does not mean that he approves of it (e.g. Rahab, a lying whore [Josh. 2:1–24]). :plain:

You are right, but God knew her heart, and that she had Faith in the True God of Israel.
 

Alaya

New member
The Jews understood David's life to be a bad example. :plain: Are you using his life to justify your sin? :dizzy: Ex 20:14
By your comment of the Jews, and their feelings towards King David proves to me you don't know much at all! And my sin is none of your business, My confession is to God alone. I am forgiven.
 

Yahu

New member
Yes, there are different rules for men and women. The way adultery was defined in the OT was about the status of the woman, not the man. A woman that was already betrothed or married to another man could not be involved with sexual intercourse with any other man.

It had nothing to do with the marital status of the man because men could have wives and concubines. It was the act of taking another man's wife/concubine or betrothed that was forbidden for a man.

The entire concept was to protect women and children. If a woman has multiple partners, who is the father of any child conceived? When a man is with multiple women, he is responsible for all the children conceived.

The law is NOT about fairness or the concept of cheating on a spouse as it is seen today. The concept (for a man) was about stealing what doesn't belong to you, ie sexual intercourse without the responsibility for the woman and any child produced.
 

Yahu

New member
For me, these inconsistencies are a reason to doubt all of it.

I don't see any inconsistencies in the scriptural sexual law BUT the way we define the terms is our modern society are different then the original usage of the terms.

For example, modern Christianity defines fornication as any premarital sexual contact while in the Hebrew is means 'unlawful sexual intercourse' and you have to go specifically to the law to determine what was unlawful. No where was 'pre-marital' sex unlawful. A sexual partner that was not a wife was a concubine. Modern day Christianity ignores the lawfulness of multiple wives and/or concubines. It is from the puritan roots of our society that has altered the meanings to fit our society.
 
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