So was it all a big ruse? Christ wasn't human but He exhibited human behavior? It was all a show to fool mankind?
Christ was clearly human in the sense that He had a physical flesh and blood body that came from the DNA of Mary (Which was in the line of Adam). But there needs to be a compromise when it comes to the soul. GOD cannot change the core essence of who He is involving His mind, will, and emotions. GOD made it clear that we are to worship GOD alone, and yet if the Eternal Logos (who is GOD) took on a human mind, will, and emotions, then there would be a portion of Himself that would not be GOD. So if we decided to worship Jesus, this presents a problem with GOD teaching that we are to worship God alone. For how can we separate the human portion of Jesus while worshiping Jesus? It makes no sense. But if the body is just a temple as Jesus said, then this does not present a problem. The body is just a shell or a husk or an outer covering like a cloak.
You said:
Please give your best Scriptual evidence which demonstrates that HU is in error.
Here is my full list of biblical reasons Jesus only had a divine soul and no newly created human soul (Which is a refutation of the Hypostatic Union):
#1. Hebrews 7:26 - "For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;"
Jesus is holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners. He was made higher than the heavens. He became us (in the fact that he had a flesh and blood body), but he was holy. A person or being who is truly holy, harmless, undefiled and separate from sinners does not have the capacity to sin. Some HU proponents say that Jesus had a human nature whereby He had the ability to potentially do evil. This means that in order to do evil or sin, one must have lusts or bad desires within them in order to carry out or act upon those wrong desires or lusts. Yet, the Bible says he was holy, undefiled and separate from sinners.
#2. 1 John 2:16 - "For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world."
This verse states that the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life is not of the Father, but is of the world.
Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30).
So if Jesus is truly one with the Father (and He is), then Jesus cannot also have any lusts of the flesh, or lusts of the eyes, or the pride of life. These things are of the world. In fact, the devil tried to offer Jesus the kingdoms of this world, but He refused his offer.
#3. Micah 5:2 - "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."
This is a Messianic prophecy that talks about how Jesus will be a ruler over Israel one day. It says that the origin of this ruler (Jesus) is from of old, from everlasting. Alternatively however if Jesus had a human soul or human mind, it suggests that Jesus was a newly created being that did not exist before the Incarnation. He would not have technically existed from everlasting if he joined with a newly created human counterpart in the Incarnation. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us. His origins are from everlasting in the fact that He is the eternal Living Word (or the Word of God as Revelation says). Jesus. He always existed. This presents a problem for Hypostatic Union (HU).
#4. 1 John 4:2 - "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."
It's a pretty fair conclusion to make that Jesus was unlike us. He was unique. This verse is not saying that he was like us. This verse does not say after he came into the flesh he became known as the man called, Jesus Christ. That is not what we are to confess. We are to confess that Jesus Christ is COME in the flesh. What this verse is suggesting (like other verses) is that Jesus Christ has always existed. Jesus Christ is COME (entered) into the flesh or body of a man. In fact, Jesus was laughed at when he said he knew Abraham. But Jesus said this to them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58). After the crowd heard this: The crowd went ape crazy and they picked up stones to throw at him. In other words, Jesus is saying He has always existed. He did not come down into a newly created human soul or spirit and take on a human nature so as to potentially sin. That wouldn't make any sense. For me this is a really strong point for this position.
#5. 1 Peter 2:24 - "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed."
Many believe that the atonement is denied if one does not believe Jesus had a human nature. But having a human soul or human spirit is not a requirement in order for God to redeem us of our sins. How so? Peter says that Jesus took on our sins in his body on the cross. So the human spirit and or human soul is not necessary for our salvation. Jesus's blood is what washes away our sins and not the soul or some spirit. For a high price was paid for our sins, and that was with Christ's death.
#6. 1 Timothy 3:16 - "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
This verse says that God was manifest in the flesh. It does not say God was manifest through a human soul or human spirit along with that flesh. God was manifest in the flesh. However, if Jesus took on a human soul, and human spirit, it really wouldn't be God manifesting in the flesh (according to this verse) because He would be like every other believer who has God living inside of them. Jesus was unique and different from us. Jesus was literally GOD. He was manifest in the flesh.
#7. John 14:30 - "Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."
Jesus is claiming that the devil has nothing inside of him. Meaning, Jesus does not have any of the lusts of the devil residing within himself (Which would be present in a normal corrupt human nature).
Jesus says to certain Jews, "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. " (John 8:44).
So Jesus is describing something of his opponents that they do, which does not apply to Him.
For Jesus says, "If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42).
So lusts do not reside in Jesus. So the false belief that Jesus could have sinned because he had a human nature does not work.
14 "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).
#8. Jesus said:
"For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38).
Now, stop and think about this for a moment. If Jesus said He came down from Heaven, then that means He was either:
(a) He was not telling the entire truth because He was referring to some divine portion of Himself (or):
(b) He was telling the entire truth and He actually did come down from Heaven and He was not created in the Incarnation as some newly created being who had a new human soul, and or human mind, etc.
Also, if Jesus is able to speak from His divine part of Himself, how is able to shut off the human part of Himself? How is Jesus able to disconnect His human mind, will, and emotions? Jesus said He came down from Heaven. Jesus did not say He came from the Incarnation as if that was His beginning. Again, this is yet another strong point for this position. But many Christians are convinced that the Hypostatic Union (HU) is the truth. What do you say is the truth on this with Scripture?
#9. if Jesus is worshiped as GOD, then that disqualifies Him in fully being a man because man is not to be worshiped as GOD because man is limited and only a created being. For Jesus says, "Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." (Luke 4:8).
#10. Isaiah 43:11 says, "I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour."
This means that there cannot be a newly created Savior to sit next to God. Jesus could not have merged with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions (i.e. a human soul) so as to be a unique Savior to God. Jesus is God, and He is the Savior. If Jesus is a newly created being in the universe, then technically He would be able to be next to the Lord and be beside Him.