Good Catch! "Slain from the Foundation of the world" concept comes from a misunderstanding of that passage. They run the words together. The name of the book is The Book of Life of the Lamb Slain.
Theology Club: Did God know that man would sin?
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Good Catch! "Slain from the Foundation of the world" concept comes from a misunderstanding of that passage. They run the words together. The name of the book is The Book of Life of the Lamb Slain.
The author of Hebrews speaks of the Christ suffering from the foundation of the "kosmos" not "aion."
Because the place He is preparing are the mansions, not the kingdom. The kingdom has been in existence ever since there has been a King.
1And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.
Kosmos also refers to the earth and the things in the earth
The field is the world; the good seed are the children of the kingdom; but the tares are the children of the wicked one
John saw many things that had not yet happened.
Good catch and good point, thanks
Right, not the "age" or "ages" (i.e. a period of time). The Lamb was foreordained from the foundation of the kosmos, not from the foundation of the age.
I think you missed my point.
Right, but I am talking about the new heaven and earth when I am refering to the new world. Jesus Christ's death and reserection is the foundation all that is new.
Would care to explain your point?
The new heaven and new earth John saw in Rev. 21 was something that was to be inherited in John's future (Rev. 21:7). The new heaven and new earth had not yet materialized.
But the foundation had.
Oh! Well, I agree that the “foundation” of the new heaven and new earth had been laid. It could even be argued that this restoration or “making things new” began with the ministry of Jesus as he cast out demons, healed all who were sick and lame, and freed all the oppressed who came to him in faith and humility. But listen, Jesus says the Father loved him before the foundation of the world (John 17:24). He could not have been talking about the foundation of the new heaven and new earth. It was from this foundation spoken of in John 17:24 that the Lamb was foreordained (1 Peter 1:20). But none of this means that the future is entirely fixed or foreknown.
Why could not that Father love Jesus before the foundation of the new? It makes perfect sense to me.
A question you have to ask yourself is why if Christ was slain before the foundation of the old world did He have to be slain again 2000 years ago?
Does not the scripture say that it was while we were yet sinner Christ died for us? If He was slain before the foundation of the old world would that not mean He died for us before we were sinners?
If the Father loved Jesus before the foundation of the “old” world (John 17:24), the Father loved Jesus before the foundation of the new. There is nothing in Scripture that would make us believe that Peter is talking about the “new” earth in 1 Peter 1:20 other than wanting it to fit in with our doctrine. The Lamb was foreordained from the foundation of the “old” earth.
What makes you think Christ was literally slain before the foundation of the world?
Besides, you could ask yourself the same question in relation to the “new” earth. If Christ was slain before the foundation of the “new” earth, why did he have to be slain again?
He died before you were born. So, yes, he died before you were a sinner.
LOL I could say the same thing about what you believe. It is hard to break down the traditions of men.
If the lamb was foreordained before the foundation of the old earth why did God first send so many prophets to get the people to repent? Did He just want to see them die?
Why did Jesus say that God thought they would reverence Him/Jesus if God foreordained Jesus to be slain from the foundation of the old earth?
Surely if God foreordained Jesus death from the foundation of the old earth He would not have thought they would reverence Jesus, He would have known that they would not reverence Him.
No, you can’t say the same thing, because there is a precedence set in Scripture with the definition I adhere to. Christ Jesus tells us what “foundation of the world” means in John 17:24. When we get to 1 Peter 1:20, we can turn to Jesus to know what Peter means by “foundation of the world.” On the other hand, we never see “new earth” without also seeing “new heavens” along beside it. So, if Peter meant “new earth” he would have included “new heavens” as well.
I don’t understand the question.
Why is that? His sacrifice was foreordained, not his brutal execution.
I do believe that God knew that it was likely man would sin and had a plan in place for that eventuality.