ECT Concerning hypostasis:

[jsjohnnt]

Originally Posted by Cross Reference View Post
How 'bout we don't begin splitting hairs. Please address the context of the overall question I posited?

Which "gene" did Jesus live by?
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Readership should know that Cross Reference does not believe in "context," telling us, on other threads, that sometimes what is written is best understood without any context. THAT is the author of the above point?

 

[TFTn5280]

TFTn5280 writes: "In fact, the only "sperm" passages contained in Scripture with regards to Jesus, are the ones which state that he was born of Abraham's seed, liturally (literally - no doubt a high church error (liturally) stemming from liturgical pracitices of worship ) "sperma" in the Greek, and David's seed, again literally "sperma," and elsewhere where Jesus is said to be of the genome (literally) of David and (literally) the fruit of David's genitals."
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With 5280's reminders of the "seed" of Abraham and David, we know that "sperma" is not about sperm and the sexual act, but about genealogies and heritage. Thanks for the reminder.

Yes, and thank you for making note of my typo. I have since edited the text to reflect the intended usage of the word. Again, thanks.

 

[Cross Reference]

My response was based on what I read as the contention that genetics was a determining factor (just a question of whose).

If I said Adam had only one gene to deal with [spiritually speaking] we can readily see there would be no warfare within him except to obey the command of God which, by our knowledge of human nature without God can be easily conquered to disobey. But with another gene having entered us from above, we now are possessed by an argument from another life, don’t you suppose?

But the way you appeared to be using I Cor 14:32 didn't seem to square with the rest of the post. That is, it seems to be your contention that the spirit (whatever one it is) does the bidding of the genetics (or is constrained by it).

Can we not say they both want to be the one given the greater attention and that is part of what working out our salvation means__ and with fear and trembling?

Put another way, the spirit can do nothing unless the flesh does it on behalf of the spirit.

By a love allegiance should it be so because not of itself can flesh please God. Therefore, Is not the flesh that which is to be brought into submission and is there not a cost involved? Did not Jesus demonstrate this for us in his 40 days in the wilderness?

Your question then becomes (if I'm reading it correctly) "Which genes submitted to God?" But it does not follow, then, that God is imposing His will if it is some "Divine genetics" which submits to Him. So I can't carry the point past that reference verse. Then again, maybe I'm not following what you are really saying. It seems really "mixed"

God never imposes His will upon man. He sometimes just makes man willing to be willing, like Balaam. But, even in that it is more the righteous of Him He picks on because they want to learn His ways __ temptation being a useful [evil] instrument when God allows it for His and our sakes..

Thank your querying me. I am tip toeing through this as it is a new perspective, in the hope of furthering my understanding the degree of the intimacy of God He is after..

A passing note :

Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.
No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.
John 10:17-18

What is doing the "laying down" here? The "gene" of Adam or of God?

Which gene can we suppose Jesus “laid” down that man could be redeemed __ was it not of vulnerable sinless human seed perfected in God?