Right Divider
Body part
I believe that the single verse that most of Churchianity uses to say that "Jesus fulfilled the law for us" is being misunderstood.Right Divider,
I DO NOT understand what you are saying. The phrase "fulfilling the law" may not be used in the specific context but the concept is sound.
Does not Romans 7 teach us that it is the law that kills us?
Romans 7: I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet.” 8 But sin, taking opportunity by the commandment, produced in me all manner of evil desire. For apart from the law sin was dead. 9 I was alive once without the law, but when the commandment came, sin revived and I died.
It is precisely because it is the law that condemns us that it was necessary that Jesus be innocent of any violation of the law. It is His innocence, His legal innocence, that satisfies the demands of (i.e. fulfills) the law to our benefit. It is the law's demand for blood that makes Christ's death necessary and, if we have been crucified with Christ then it is that death, which the law inflicted on Christ, which makes it so that the law has no hold on us because once the law has killed you, it has no more to say against you because the law no longer applies to those it has executed.
Further, does not Galatians 5 teach us the we fulfill the law by loving our neighbor?...
Galatians 5:13 For you, brethren, have been called to liberty; only do not use liberty as an opportunity for the flesh, but through love serve one another. 14 For all the law is fulfilled in one word, even in this: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”Indeed, isn't the whole point of Galatians 5 that we fulfill the law but not because we submit to the law but because we love on another and are led by the Spirit and produce the fruit thereof, against which there is no law?
I'm curious about something. Do believe that Jesus fulfilled the law for those saved under the dispensation of the law and saved through the kingdom gospel? In other words, is your objection concerning this "fulfilling the law" idea only applicable to those of us under the dispensation of grace?
The "fulfilling" is referring to "the law AND the prophets". It is not talking about "fulfilling the law", but about fulfilling the prophecies contained in "Moses (i.e., the law) and the prophets. The term "the law and the prophets" is a figure of speech referring to those books and not the law itself.
Indeed Jesus kept the law and was the only perfect sacrifice for sin.