The covenant of circumcision.
So, you've told me you "put" 'bryt' and 'eysh' "together" "because of" "the covenant of circumcision". What (if anything) do you imagine you mean by this?
In any case, so far, you've not handed out even a shred of an argument for your claim that the Hebrew 'bryt' and 'eysh' have anything, whatsoever, to do with the English word, 'British'.
Yeah, I'm sure everyone's very impressed by your superior grasp of the issues.
To what (if any) issues are you referring by your phrase, "the issues"?
What claim was that, specifically?
Hmmm. Did you really not read what I wrote? Here, again, is what I
specifically wrote:
Oh? Then please do lay out for me your "research" as to why you claim that the word 'British' was derived from a combining of 'bryt' and 'eysh'.
Remember that? Yeah. It was in my previous post. Now, do you still have difficulty seeing specifically what claim I was specifically talking about? (For your convenience, I have now highlighted the text of the claim I was specifically talking about, as well as emboldened and underscored the word, 'claim', preceding it.)
You said that "you're motivated to have the word, 'British', be derivative of a combining of 'bryt' and 'eysh'", which is false.
Then you said that I claimed that the derivation existed, which is also false.
Well, here,
again, is what you had written:
The Hebrew word for covenant is bryt, and circumcision is only applied to males, whe [sic] in Hebrew are called eysh. Put these two words together and you get bryt-eysh, or British.
So, by "put these two words together and you get bryt-eysh, or British", you did NOT mean that you derive the word, 'British', from the combining of 'bryt' and 'eysh'? What (if anything), then, did you mean by "put these two words together and you get bryt-eysh, or British"?
How can you GET 'British', yet somehow not DERIVE 'British'?! How can a GETTING of the word 'British' from 'bryt' and 'eysh' somehow fail to be a DERIVATION of the word 'British' from 'bryt' and 'eysh'? In other words: No DERIVATION of 'British' from 'bryt' and 'eysh', then no GETTING of 'British' from 'bryt' and 'eysh'. Pretty simple.
At any rate, I guess, going forward, you now, especially, won't want to be claiming that the word, 'British', is to be thought derivative of a combining--a "putting together"--of 'bryt' and 'eysh'.
So, what (if any) point, then, do you imagine you're even trying to make by saying, "Put these two words together and you get bryt-eysh, or British"--since now you tell us that your point was not to claim that 'British' is derived from 'bryt' and 'eysh'?
Here's the thing: you know, as well as I, the truth that there is not a shred of relevance between 'bryt' and 'eysh' on the one hand, and 'British', on the other.
Derivations and associations are different things.
Well, you've already disowned
derivations in relation to what you've written about "putting together" 'bryt' and 'eysh', and about "getting" 'British'. So now, I suppose you'll want to somehow try to tailor your silly discussion about "putting together" 'bryt' and 'eysh', and about "getting" 'British', around
associations. Have fun with that.
You're attempting to divert from they [sic] fact that you're just trolling.
Oh, so to ask Theo102 questions that Theo102 has no hope of answering, and which are fundamentally embarrassing to Theo102's silly claims, is what Theo102 calls "trolling". I read ya loud and clear, Theo102.