Atheist-Atheos

gcthomas

New member
He just can't accept that Paul used the term in one of his Epistles. His problem, not mine.

I'm happy he used a term in another language that has been translated into a modern word with a similar, but not identical, meaning.

:carryon:
 

Truster

New member
This denys freewill. Are you making this claim?

"The boast of a person who is as deluded to think they have made a choice is laughable."

If so, then the atheist is no more a fool than the believer ....righteous.

No man has ever possessed free will. Free will by its character requires sufficient power to fulfil that will. No creature has this including angels mutable or immutable.

Only the Eternal Almighty has free will. ''Let Thy will be done'' amen.


''A man's heart deviseth his way: but Yah Veh directeth his steps''. Proverbs 16:9 KJV
 

Truster

New member
Paul explains in Romans that Elohim has placed the knowledge of His eternal power in all men so that they are without excuse.

This means the atheist has some concept of Elohim and His power, that he denies this in the desire to continue in sin without being judged, but judgement is in the sin.
 

chrysostom

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
No man has ever possessed free will. Free will by its character requires sufficient power to fulfil that will. No creature has this including angels mutable or immutable.

Only the Eternal Almighty has free will. ''Let Thy will be done'' amen.


''A man's heart deviseth his way: but Yah Veh directeth his steps''. Proverbs 16:9 KJV

so what do you call our ability to choose?
 

Crucible

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Banned
The word 'atheist' was not used in scriptures, being a recent invention.

That's because anyone before this age would see atheism as absurd, and being that there's no satisfactory alternative to the universe, it's still absurd. The difference is that modern science has just proven to be both a thorough distraction and agent of narcissism.
 

quip

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No man has ever possessed free will. Free will by its character requires sufficient power to fulfil that will. No creature has this including angels mutable or immutable.

Only the Eternal Almighty has free will. ''Let Thy will be done'' amen.


''A man's heart deviseth his way: but Yah Veh directeth his steps''. Proverbs 16:9 KJV

Okay, then we're all puppets with strings subject to divine fiat.

As such, religion is merely empty loquaciousness; faith/non-faith... a redundant waste of effort.

meh...:idunno:
 

Truster

New member
Okay, then we're all puppets with strings subject to divine fiat.

As such, religion is merely empty loquaciousness; faith/non-faith... a redundant waste of effort.

meh...:idunno:

In the unregenerate the prince of the power of the air works. In the regenerate it is the Holy Spirit that works. Over all we live and stir and be in Yah Veh Elohim.

These are three scriptures.
 

quip

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In the unregenerate the prince of the power of the air works. In the regenerate it is the Holy Spirit that works. Over all we live and stir and be in Yah Veh Elohim.

These are three scriptures.

uhhhh...sure.

Whatever gets your motor up 'n running in the morning. :rapture:
 

quip

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PS religion is empty, but salvation is full.

I suppose you view thyself as holding one of those predestined "golden tickets" lest we'd be reading such unlikely rhetoric from the likes of the damned.

Yes?
 

Truster

New member
I suppose you view thyself as holding one of those predestined "golden tickets" lest we'd be reading such unlikely rhetoric from the likes of the damned.

Yes?

I despised religion and anything considered holy. I didn't ask to be saved and I didn't want to be saved, but on July 17th 1999 at 10:30am I was saved.
 

quip

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I despised religion and anything considered holy. I didn't ask to be saved and I didn't want to be saved, but on July 17th 1999 at 10:30am I was saved.

Touché

I likewise despise religion and anything considered holy. I didn't asked to be damned and I can care less if I'm damned, but on some undisclosed future date and time....I'll secure my destiny.

Seems reasonable to me.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
No man has ever possessed free will. Free will by its character requires sufficient power to fulfil that will. No creature has this including angels mutable or immutable.

Only the Eternal Almighty has free will. ''Let Thy will be done'' amen.

But if the servant plainly says, "I love my master, my wife, and my children, I will not go out free..." (Exodus 21:5 NKJV)​

Was it an exercise of the servant's free will with regard to his choice?
 

gcthomas

New member
I suppose you view thyself as holding one of those predestined "golden tickets" lest we'd be reading such unlikely rhetoric from the likes of the damned.

Yes?

Weren't the "golden tickets" for a visit to a chocolate factory?
 

PureX

Well-known member
The word atheist is used once in the scriptures by Paul and the English translation conveys atheist exactly as it should.


PS just added you to my ignore list as you make unfounded statements.
The word "atheist" cannot have been written in scripture because it did not exist in any of the languages that any ancient scriptural text that has ever been found, was written in. So it is a fact that when you read the word "atheist" in your copy of scripture, it is a TRANSLATION of some other word from some other ancient language.

So the real question is what are the original word/s in the original texts, and what EXACTLY did they mean to the people who wrote them? Not what they mean to you; … but what did they mean to them? And to understand this, we would have to trust someone else's translation, yet again, because we cannot translate the ancient texts for ourselves.
 

Truster

New member
The word "atheist" cannot have been written in scripture because it did not exist in any of the languages that any ancient scriptural text that has ever been found, was written in. So it is a fact that when you read the word "atheist" in your copy of scripture, it is a TRANSLATION of some other word from some other ancient language.

So the real question is what are the original word/s in the original texts, and what EXACTLY did they mean to the people who wrote them?

The term atheist was used by Paul in one of his epistles. It is used once in scripture and is correctly interpreted into English. Anyone who is conversant with the scriptures would know and recognise this.
 

gcthomas

New member
The term atheist was used by Paul in one of his epistles. It is used once in scripture and is correctly interpreted into English. Anyone who is conversant with the scriptures would know and recognise this.

No, the English word atheist is only five centuries old, so unless the Bible is a recent fake and written in English, Paul couldn't have used it.

He used a different word with different meanings and connotations and societal inferences. It isn't rocket science. Translations are never exact.
 

Truster

New member
But if the servant plainly says, "I love my master, my wife, and my children, I will not go out free..." (Exodus 21:5 NKJV)​

Was it an exercise of the servant's free will with regard to his choice?

Obedience is worked in a man, but is not inherent in man.

''For it is Elohim who works in you to will and to do of His good purpose''

In the unregenerate, '' the prince of the power of the air who works in the children of disobedience''.

Where there is obedience there is Elohim.
 

PureX

Well-known member
The term atheist was used by Paul in one of his epistles. It is used once in scripture and is correctly interpreted into English. Anyone who is conversant with the scriptures would know and recognise this.
Those letters were written in ancient Greek, the language from which the term "atheist" derives, admittedly. This is true. But that does not mean that the translation is as correct as you may assume. As religious scripture is never interpreted without a bias. And the nuanced meaning of words in their given language are lost when translated for people who do not actively speak in that language.

For example, I am fascinated by the ancient Greek term "logos", because in it's own language, it refers to a whole philosophical ethos that was unique to ancient Greek culture which I find amazing. And yet I have never managed to explain it clearly to anyone in my own language and culture even though I believe I do have a pretty clear grasp of what the ancient Greeks meant by that term.

Yet do I really understand it as they did? I mean, I think I do, but in the end I am not an ancient Greek. And I cannot go to ancient Greece and ask them if my understanding of that term, and of the philosophy that surrounds it is actually what they thought and felt about existence, God, and reality. So I can't really be certain that my grasp of the term is true, even if it is insightful, and appears to me to be relatively accurate.

The truth is that I could simply be substituting my own bias for what I believe they meant by that term. It's just impossible for me to know, for sure.
 
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