Hi and there are many verse that prove that Paul is an APOSTLE to the Gentiles and one is Rom 11:13 !!~
You need to read a bible and to know how to retention , after you read the bible !!
dan p
So why did he also go to lost Jews?
Why did he go to both then?
Because the ground was now level - both lost Jews and Gentiles had been concluded under sin, or "heathen."
Romans 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; 3:10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: 3:11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.
Romans 11:30 For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief: 11:31 Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy. 11:32 For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
Why did he go to both?
That he might be able to say of both...
Ephesians 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; 2:2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience: 2:3 Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.
He went to both, as "heathen."
Acts 17:11, 12; Rom. 14:5; Rom. 5:6-8.