ARCHIVE:God is NOT an OV'er (He said so)

Axacta

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Well it has taken me hours to read all forty pages of this thread - quite exhausting. It is a particularly interesting discussion to me because I have never read or heard about Open View before. But I am very familiar with it - it coincides quite nicely with my own personal discoveries in Scripture. Please excuse me if along the way I cover some old ground.

First, I found it rather interesting to find quite a number of years ago that Calvinism, and by extension Arminianism, came about as a result of the debates with the Gnostics in the early centuries of the Church. The Gnostics insisted that knowledge was the key to salvation and God. The Gnostics contended that for a person to be saved they had to "know", and in order for God to be God He had to "know". Because the early Church Fathers had an argument for the first assertion, salvation by grace through faith, they stuck to their guns. But they had no argument for the Gnostics contention of the necessity of God to know everything, so they conceded to it, and the perfect foreknowledge doctrine was born.

Absolute foreknowledge and predestination: Causal predestination intimates foreknowledge. I think we can all agree on that. But absolute foreknowledge does not necessarily intimate causal predestination. It is however, inextricably linked to predestination just the same. In order for something to be foreknown it of necessity must be predestined to happen, because if it is not predestined to happen, it cannot be foreknown (a circular argument that works). This precludes all choice, either by the participants in the events that are predestined and foreknown, or for an outside observer (God). So in both cases, causal predestination and resultant predestination, freewill change is removed from both participants and observer. Therefore, man has no free will, and when relating to man God has no free will for change either, because all is predestined.

It seems to me that the foundation of the whole argument is based on God's relationship with creation. If as is contended by the traditional views, an eternal now God is outside of time, indeed created time, and can view all events of all time, then perfect foreknowledge and absolute predestination logically follow. But if God did not in fact create time, but instead it is actually a "divine experience" in the sense that God is inside of time just as creation is inside of time, then perfect foreknowledge and absolute predestination are ruled out. Note, some foreknowledge and predestination are allowable, as I will now explain.

Omniscience in the terms of a God within time must be defined as an awareness of all events of the present. Also God would have a perfect memory of the past. Finally, God can project all possibilities into the future. Nothing can happen that God has not discerned as a possibility. Free will allows for many possible outcomes for any present tense event, but no result can surprise God in the sense that He would not have projected the possibility. Additionally, some things God can foreknow to happen, and thus are predestined to happen. There are three possible ways that God can foreknow a future event. 1. He determines to cause the future event Himself. 2. All possibilities end with the same result. And 3. is a combination of the first two where he directs events to select only possibilities that result in the desired event. The reason that God can follow all possibilities to their conclusions is the law of sowing and reaping. It is a law like the law of gravity - an event that is observed under certain circumstances without fail. The only exception to an "observed law" is when other laws supercede it, as when birds fly. It is the same with the law of sowing and reaping. Whatever is sown must be reaped, so in a sense, everything that will happen in the future is predestined to happened, based on the law of sowing and reaping. But there is also the law of free will, which may supercede the law of sowing and reaping. The law of free will however, is not an observable law, but a determinate law based on an entity's decisions. Hence the uncertainty of future events influenced by the determinate law of free will, and so not all future events can be foreknown where free will is involved.

Earlier in the thread the two verses in second Timothy and Titus were entered as evidence that God created time. "Before the ages of time" (Pro chronos aionios) This is an incorrect understanding and translation. Ages in Scripture always denotes specific blocks of time. An age is simply a defined amount of time, not time itself, these verses are simply stating that grace and the hope of eternal life were promised before the ages (blocks of time as defined in Scripture), not before time began.

Just to throw a wrench in the discussion about, "if it is possible, may this cup be taken from me", in John 12:32 Jesus said, "if I am lifted from this earth". So there is scriptural confirmation connecting Jesus and the word "if".

As far as the verses discussed concerning the foundation of the world, well their meanings are easily cleared up by examining the word katabole (foundation). It is made up of two words, kata and bole. Kata means down, and bole means throw. Or downthrow. In the society of that day, to throw something down (katabole) was to consider it broken, spoiled or of no use. The translated word "foundation" is inaccurate and misleading, (purposefully I believe). The proper translation would be, "from the overthrow of the world".

Why did God create man? To have a love relationship. And to have a love relationship it must be freely reciprocal. And there is something about a love relationship that demands spontaneity. To receive a benefit it must be spontaneous. Think about two parents and a child. The first time that child walks is a delight to the parents. The first time the child say momma is also a delight. Though expected and anticipated it is never foreknown. If it was the spontaneity would cease and so would the delight. God wants to delight in us. This cannot be done with perfect foreknowledge. He created us to delight in us. We are created in his image - freewill beings with the ability to be spontaneous.
 

geoff

New member
yxboom,

There is an advert in NZ for gravy... called 'Gravox' - the add shows an OX, then Gravy... etc..

its become short hand for someone who cant see the obvious...

(its a cerebos greggs GE free product btw)
 
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Yxboom

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Axacta

Axacta

Let me welcome you to TOL. From reading your excellent post I must make known to you that it is the unwritten contract that you will be under fire now. :D I believe you have brought in some spectacular insights into our discussion. :thumb: I appreciate it very much. As for your statement
Axacta: It is a particularly interesting discussion to me because I have never read or heard about Open View before.
If you are inclined, I would highly recommend that you read "The God Who Risks: A Theology of Divine Providence" by John Sanders. It is a phenomenal look into the Open View. I would also recommend checking out http://www.opentheism.org Anyway, I gave my OV plug so...Peace. :)
 
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Yxboom

Guest
geoff,

geoff,

Thanks for the 411 on the gravox. I knew it had some funky sarcasm in it that I would appreciate. I also appreciate you verifing Jobeth's obliviousness to what I've made as common knowledge in TOL. :doh: Peace. :)
 

Axacta

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Yxboom, thank you for your gracious welcome. Yes I rather gathered that I might be stepping into a bit of a hornet's nest. And thank you for the compliments about my first post, the book recommendation, and the link. I look forward to examining them.

I first heard about what is now known as the Open View in the mid-eighties. From what I have gathered the position was in it's infancy then, with little supportive evidence. I see now that it has grown considerably, and I look forward to learning and expanding my understanding of it.

I realize in a forum such as this that one cannot just wander off into other topics no matter how intimately related, but I believe that besides the direct evidence in favor of the Open View, the whole basis of prayer, prophecy, God's motives, the mechanics of creation, and a host of other topics are all so interrelated that to remove one brick brings the whole wall tumbling down.

Man is a logical being because God is a logical being. Therefore the Bible is a logical account and dissertation, and must be viewed as a whole and not just in pieces. From such a viewpoint God can only be seen as interacting with His creation in real time, excluding perfect foreknowledge and/or absolute predestination. When seen from a holistic angle (getting dangerously close to being accused of New Ageism LOL), the "story" of God and His interaction with creation become a wonderful "whole", that simply cannot be comprehended through the blurry lenses of Calvinism and Arminianism. It is like the blind man who when Jesus first layed hands on him could only see fuzzy shapes of people that looked to him like trees walking around. But instead of sticking around for the second laying of hands that allowed the blind man to see clearly, they have wandered off thinking they can see. Sadly, for those who cling to these Gnostic positions, they will never be able to fully grasp the incredible comprehensive harmony of the purposes of God's relationship with man and the rest of creation.
 
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Yxboom

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Axacta

Axacta

Axacta: Yes I rather gathered that I might be stepping into a bit of a hornet's nest.
Yea but you are in good company and as long as you bring your smokecan you should get out not looking like :eek:
I realize in a forum such as this that one cannot just wander off into other topics no matter how intimately related, but I believe that besides the direct evidence in favor of the Open View, the whole basis of prayer, prophecy, God's motives, the mechanics of creation, and a host of other topics are all so interrelated that to remove one brick brings the whole wall tumbling down.
:nono: It's a practice we all do. No reason to lock yourself in only 1 thread.
Lord-willing I look forward to some more interesting insights you can profit us by bringing them to the table. Peace. :thumb:
 

geoff

New member
Yxboom.. It been common knowledge for 4 years that I have been on here... lol.

Axacta,

I am guessing you are also dispensationalist, and probably bullingerianist. Only a guess mind.

Firstly, and no offence intended, contrary to yxboom, there was nothing particularly novel in what you said. Its been done before, and the only thing it gets you is a pat on your back from like minded individuals.

From your seond post, what is clear, is that you, like most OV ASSUME that because God interacts in time with His creation, that:
a: He is IN time (therefore captive to time)
b: therefore not omniscient (or in 1013's case, accepting omniscience as a fact, redefines it to a form of limited omniscience which is not omnisicience at all)

You also claim that foreknowledge is causative, which, if you had read through this thread is not accepted by most people. Causation is not a property of knowledge.

Anyway, I dont have time, nor can I be bothered to refute all your arguments, perhaps Jaltus or someone who isnt tired of repeating themselves over and oever and over will.

I will say this though, the assumption that God is in time because He interacts with creation in time is a really bad place to start.
God pre-exists creation, so Start with God. There are many many good compatibilist arguments for an omnitemporal God, that He is both timeless and in time. My understanding is that GOD (the essence) is timeless, and that He interjects Himself into time in the form of the Father, the Son, and the Spirit.

There is also a good article by Paul Helm which I can reference for you, in which He demonstrates that the arguments which apply to God's spacelessness also apply to His timelessness. That is, if God does not occupy any particular point in space, He can not also occupy any particular time. If the totality of God is not there, or here, or there, it is also not then, now, or then. THink about it.

Anyway, I am off.
 

1013

Post Modern Fundamentalist
Greetings Anaxacta.

You have some interesting thoughts and contrary to certain opinions, they have not seen the light of day here.

I found it interesting that you say foreknowledge was brought to the forefront in the gnostic debate. It would surprise me if the classical views of foreknowledge have not been articulated before that but anything's possible. I'd like to know were you learned this.

However, I'd have to disagree with you that that's where calvinism and Arminianism began. Of course sentiments in line with Arminianism have been expressed by the greek forefathers, prominent before the latin forefathers who took to the classical theism that you know in the form of Calvinism.

Classical theism does go back before the latins fathers as it was constructed by the Jewish philosopher Philo who read Plato into the scriptures (and no geoff, I'm not saying that greek philosophical thinking inserted into philosophy is necessarily a bad thing).

For an excellent historical treatment of the developement of Classical theism and Arminianism you can read John Sander's chapter in The Openness of God by Sander's, Hasker, Pinnock, and others.

As for your relation of predestination to foreknowledge, it seems a decent treatment, but I'm careful not to emphasize that foreknowledge indicates predestination thus it negates freedom because predestination usually involves a predestiner and/or past circumstances which some arminians may be able to contend with. However, there are some philosophical proofs at www.gregboyd.org that show a connection between foreknowledge and predestination. When I argue this issue though, I think it is enough to show that foreknowledge negates multiple possibilities and free creatures need multiple possibilities in order to be free thus freedom is negated. You might think that is hairsplitting but I think the difference is necessary.

As for a hornets nest, well, for the time being, there's only one hornet *cough*geoff*cough*. I haven't seen any of the other particularly hostile anti-ov'ers lately. However, Jaltus provides some good critical dialogue. Also occasionally Jobeth is good for a chat.

that simply cannot be comprehended through the blurry lenses of Calvinism and Arminianism.

many professional openness theologians view themselves in the tradition of Arminianism. Also, that excellent book The God who Risks recommended to you is heavily documented (one fifth of the book is footnotes!) and most of the authors Sander's cites to support his statements are Reformed Theologians.

I first heard about what is now known as the Open View in the mid-eighties.

So you've been following it from almost the beginning. I was mostly watching cartoons in the eighties.

Welcom to the forum. I look forward to more of your participation.
 
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Yxboom

Guest
Geoff,

Geoff,

I am guessing you are also dispensationalist, and probably bullingerianist. Only a guess mind.
1 point but you hit a whammy. I am dispensationalist, but I am Darby Acts 9 persuasion and not Acts 28 as Bullingerism.
Its been done before, and the only thing it gets you is a pat on your back from like minded individuals.
As Commodus put it in Gladiator, "You busy little bee..." :shocked: Don't know what I'd do without you? As a matter of fact I have given praise to individuals for a great insight or response even though I may personally disagree. A good answer is a good answer, even though it don't make it right. I'm still waiting for one from you geoff :p
b: therefore not omniscient (or in 1013's case, accepting omniscience as a fact, redefines it to a form of limited omniscience which is not omnisicience at all)
1013 has not defined a new version of the OV for it is an OV tenet that God is omniscient. As you will agree it is not the traditional definition however. God knows all things that are knowable and since the future is not knowable than God is not any less omniscient because He does not perform the logically impossible. Just as it is my impression you would not argue that God is not omnipotent if he cant make a squared circle or sin. God knows all things present and past. I believe it was Pinnock who put it, "God does not know what I will do in 10 minutes from now because I have not done it. But in 10 minutes He will."
You also claim that foreknowledge is causative, which, if you had read through this thread is not accepted by most people. Causation is not a property of knowledge.
I think he did an excellent job by showing how it may be causative by necessity, to which you will agree has been done before by many of us OV'ers. But its them little bees.... Anyway I will leave that with him. Bzzzzzzzzzt....Peace. :)
 

Axacta

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Thank you for the greetings 1013, and the same to you.

Actually I did not say that I have "followed" it from the beginning, only that I had heard of it near the beginning. In fact I have not followed it at all. Purposely, I have withdrawn from the use of other study resources until only recently, and even now only in a very limited amount. I have found that the best way for me to understand the Bible is to limit myself to only a very few select resources, and concentrate on Scripture itself. For example this thread is only the third time I have participated in a Christian forum. Virtually everything in my first post is original to my own studies and conclusions.

As far as the Gnostics source, it was something I read or heard at the same time around the beginning. I have no idea of the origin, and admittedly, it may have been a little presumptuous to present it. It seems to me that I thought it was a credible source at the time.

I am afraid I have failed to grasp your hairsplitting argument. Are you saying there can be foreknowledge without it being predestined?
 
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Yxboom

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1013

1013

For an excellent historical treatment of the developement of Classical theism and Arminianism you can read John Sander's chapter in The Openness of God by Sander's, Hasker, Pinnock, and others.
I have to second that. :up: I am just finishing up with it. I have got about a dozen pages left. Sander's did an excellent job in his own book on the Hellenization of Christianity, but I personally found his dealing with it in The Openness of God more informative.
When I argue this issue though, I think it is enough to show that foreknowledge negates multiple possibilities and free creatures need multiple possibilities in order to be free thus freedom is negated. You might think that is hairsplitting but I think the difference is necessary.
You make a great point in the treating of foreknowledge necessitating predestination which I agree (and as to why I tried to be careful in addressing my admonishment to Anax in his dealing with it) because ultimately the argument does rest on the fact that if all is foreknown than it only negates multiple outcome since one outcome has to occur or there would be nothing for God to foreknow. However as I tried to debate with geoff and pilgrim I went the angle of God's intervention in the world. That if God foreknew 1 outcome and He intervened to alter that outcome than His previous foreknowledge is moot and is now void allowing for an imperfect or incomplete foreknowledge since He is now relying on a second-tier foreknowledge.
Also occasionally Jobeth is good for a chat.
Just remember to take the blue pill and deep breaths. ;)
I was mostly watching cartoons in the eighties.
Here, here. He-man and Transformers, baby! :thumb:
 

geoff

New member
yxboom,

If I come to an argument from an OV'er that is 'good' - I would no doubt become an OV'er. Comprendez vous?

Derby Bible Church dispensationalism is in effect Bullingerian, at least, thats where it came from initially. Bullingerianism is shorthand for hyperdispensationalism which both Acts 9 and Acts 28 dispensationalism are.

Dispensationalism is really a bad name for this brand of hermeneutics and the theological system resulting from it. As all Christians believe in some form of 'dispensation'. Its better called "Derbyism' - after Derby the man, not the Church. Bear in mine its essentially a hermeneutical system, and a demonstratibly flawed one at that, which results in a theological system.

Anyway...

I believe it was Pinnock who put it, "God does not know what I will do in 10 minutes from now because I have not done it. But in 10 minutes He will."

From the human frame of reference it is so. That is, 'I cant comprehend how God could know it because I am trapped in time myself - so therefore God must be likewise inhibited'.

Much the same way of philosophising as derbyism approaches hermeneutics. Start with the premise that because You are in time and limited, and therefore God is, and you end up with that conclusion. That doesnt prove that God is in fact trapped within and limited by time, which is in effect the claim, as such:
"God can not know the future exhaustively because He is trapped within time".

Again for the record:
But absolute foreknowledge does not necessarily intimate causal predestination. It is however, inextricably linked to predestination just the same.
Predestination is causal. Foreknowledge is not. In order to predestine, foreknowledge is a prerequisite. Foreknowledge DOES NOT require predestination.

A being can foreknow and not destine, but can not predestine and not foreknow.

Quite simple.
 

Axacta

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Banned
Perhaps I should clarify what I meant about causal predestination and resultant predestination. Causal I see as an event that is caused by an entity. The entity decides to cause a certain event (foreknowledge), and so that event is causally predestined to happen. Resultant predestination is when some event is inevitable because all possibilities (law of sowing and reaping) end there. Foreknowledge is not necessary for the event to happen - it is simply inevitable. But by the same token something that is foreknown must be either causally or resultantly predestined to happen. Either the event is actuated by the entity, or observed by the entity - and in both cases it is foreknowledge and predestination. Foreknowledge is not possible unless the event is destined to happen by the entity, or fate.
 
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Yxboom

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Geoff,

Geoff,

Geoff: If I come to an argument from an OV'er that is 'good' - I would no doubt become an OV'er. Comprendez vous?
Good to hear that.
Geoff: Derby Bible Church dispensationalism is in effect Bullingerian, at least, thats where it came from initially.
As this may be splitting hairs as 1013 puts it but as no offense. I am not claiming historical scholarship here but it is my understanding that John Nelson Derby (the father of mid acts dispensationalism) founded his Plymouth Brethren church with these "dispensational" beliefs in 1825. Bullinger was not even born until 1837. I am having a problem ascribing mid-acts dispensationalism to Bullinger who was born a dozen years after Derby had already founded the Plymouth Brethren congregation. Ah..by-gones.
Geoff: Bullingerianism is shorthand for hyper-dispensationalism which both Acts 9 and Acts 28 dispensationalism are.
Some more hairs here but you are correct in Bullingerism being aka hyper or ultra dispensationalism but Acts 9 or 13 is never ascribed as hyper-dispensationalism but rather moderate dispensationalism. Acts 28 has always been considered the extreme because of their refusal of the Lord's supper. Again...by-gones.
Geoff: Its better called "Derbyism' - after Derby the man, not the Church. Bear in mine its essentially a hermeneutical system, and a demonstratibly flawed one at that, which results in a theological system.
I agree that the distinction should be made because I have enough ignorant bullets to dodge because christians claim that there is no such thing as a dispensation. Which I have just that battle in the dispensational thread, but they won't offer up bulls in the temple and wipe blood on their door posts. As far as it being a flawed theology than lets deal with that in another thread.
Geoff: Much the same way of philosophising as derbyism approaches hermeneutics. Start with the premise that because You are in time and limited, and therefore God is, and you end up with that conclusion. That doesnt prove that God is in fact trapped within and limited by time, which is in effect the claim, as such:
I applaud how you have discerned the intimate relationship with the OV and Acts 9 dispensationalism. Next thing you know you gonna say I'm a inclusivist ;)
Geoff: Predestination is causal. Foreknowledge is not. In order to predestine, foreknowledge is a prerequisite. Foreknowledge DOES NOT require predestination.
I think you are arguing the wrong guy. My debate with you as I had written to 1013 is the freedom and liberty based on EDF.
Yxboom: You make a great point in the treating of foreknowledge necessitating predestination which I agree (and as to why I tried to be careful in addressing my admonishment to Anax in his dealing with it) because ultimately the argument does rest on the fact that if all is foreknown than it only negates multiple outcome since one outcome has to occur or there would be nothing for God to foreknow. However as I tried to debate with geoff and pilgrim I went the angle of God's intervention in the world. That if God foreknew 1 outcome and He intervened to alter that outcome than His previous foreknowledge is moot and is now void allowing for an imperfect or incomplete foreknowledge since He is now relying on a second-tier foreknowledge.
Hopefully that clears it up. Peace. :)
 

1013

Post Modern Fundamentalist
I am afraid I have failed to grasp your hairsplitting argument. Are you saying there can be foreknowledge without it being predestined?

never mind. your distinguishment of causal and resultant predestination seems pretty good and may effectively keep you out of any hot water.

Virtually everything in my first post is original to my own studies and conclusions.

that's pretty cool and amazing.
 
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Yxboom

Guest
I think he should check out the site. Hopefully it should clear up the misunderstanding. Duck 1013! <whooosh>
 

geralduk

New member
When the Lord walked this earth.He by His life showed the LIBERTY and the comformity of His life to the will of God.
If we also consider at the same time that HE was and is the incarnate God the visible expresion of the invisible God.
We must also then consider that His life on earth was PREORDAINED both in its content and end.
Why?
Becuase He was true to His NATURE even from the beginning.
and is the SAME yetserday to day and forever.
We read in scriptures that there is coming a 'day' when ALL things will be made SUBJECT to Him and when all things are He will SUBJECT Himself to the FATHER EVEN AS he has always done so.
So that God will be ALL in ALL.

In the final analysis the whole of the scriputres is both a prohpecy and a history of that end.
And to which ALL things WILL conform to or perish.
 

jobeth

Member
Yxboom:
I realize that we've been distracted by the new guy, but I'd still like to hear back from you concerning my question:

Is it good for God or evil for Him to have His will thwarted and His plans ruined?

If having His will thwarted and His plans ruined is good for God, then they (those who will not repent and believe) should be rewarded by God for doing what is good for God, not punished.
God would be unjust to punish someone who does good to Him.

If it is evil for God to have His will thwarted and His plans ruined (by those who will not repent and believe), then God is not more powerful than Evil. Rather, God would be weak indeed if God's will is forever overcome by (their) evil.

I believe that God is neither unjust nor weak. That is why I deny that God wants all men to be saved without exception.

Rather, I believe that God wants all men to be saved who repent and acknowledge the truth.

If it is God's will to save ONLY those who repent and acknowledge the truth, then by saving them, God gets His way and His will is not thwarted nor are His plans for them ruined, since He planned to save all those who believe and to condemn all those who will not believe.

What Good (if any) does it do for God, to have willed and planned for them to repent and believe, so He could save them, when they will not do so?
 

ApologeticJedi

New member
Is God Less Powerful?

Is God Less Powerful?

The question is often put that if God’s will can be thwarted, then is God less powerful than those that thwarted him. This is an ancient argument that is poorly thought out. It confuses the concepts of “control” and “power”.

God is the most powerful being, but that doesn’t mean that his will (His desires) can’t be thwarted. The question is control. Control is not necessarily a sign of power, nor is power always exhibited by control. A man is far more powerful than a spotted owl, but (right or wrong) men “reserve” their own power over the spotted owl. I put that it isn’t a sign of weakness, nor that the spotted owl is more powerful than the man necessarily.

Jesus put it a better way. (Jesus, of course was God on earth. His actions mimic God’s actions.) Jesus refuted this popular belief that “control” and “power” are related on several occasions. One occasion, Jesus “served” his disciples by washing their feet. Afterwards, Jesus used this act to distinguish between the kind of governance God exhibits over creation verses the kind of governance that the above question assumes.

Luke 22
25 And he said unto them, The kings of the Gentiles exercise lordship over them; and they that exercise authority upon them are called benefactors.
26 But ye shall not be so: but he that is greatest among you, let him be as the younger; and he that is chief, as he that doth serve.
27 For whether is greater, he that sitteth at meat, or he that serveth? is not he that sitteth at meat? but I am among you as he that serveth.

Even as God the Son exhibited servitude while on earth, and did not “lord over” anyone. So too, God the Father does not “lord over” people, forcing them to bend to his will. That men do not do as God wishes does not make Him less powerful, but shows that He has a better understanding of power than; the Gentile kings, the apostles, and those that suppose God would have to be less powerful.
 
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