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Appeals to the usual "all men" verses by the anti-Calvinist are easily met with reasoned interpretative skills.
For example,
No doubt when I provide the correct answer for this verse, you will hop to another. So, to save time let's look at the usual suspects you appeal to for your indefinite atonement error.
“For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that He might have mercy upon all” ( Rom. 11:32 )
Romans 11:32 refers to the rejection and the restoration or repentance of the Jewish nation.
“Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life” ( Rom. 5:18 )
Romans 5:18 speaks of all those who are in Christ, who will be the recipients of justification unto life.
“For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive” ( 1 Cor. 15:22 )
1 Corinthians 15:22 speaks of all who will be made alive in Christ.
“And that He died for all . . .” ( 2 Cor. 5:15 )
2 Corinthians 5:15 makes mention of all believers who have died to sin and are partakers of spiritual life.
“Who will have all men to be saved.. . . Who gave Himself a ransom for all . . .”( 1 Tim. 2:4,6 )
In 1 Timothy 2:4–6 , the reference is to all sorts of men, which is evident in 1 Tim 2:2 —all sorts of men rather than all men will come to the knowledge of the truth. One antecedent to "all men" in 1 Tim 2:4 is the "all men" in 1 Tim 2:1, which plainly interpreted means "all kinds of men," as 1 Tim 2:2 elaborates by example: kings and all those in authority. So, one qualifier of "all" is already explicit in the text. With that in mind, it should be clear that the express "will of God" in 1 Tim 2:4 is a general, and not his specific electing-will-unto-salvation, which would be the case if this text were concerned to teach on election. Actually, the text is teaching the definiteness of Our Lord's atonement.
What does ὁ δοὺς ἑαυτὸν ἀντίλυτρον ὑπὲρ πάντων (1 Tim 2:6) mean? Who are the "all" that are ransomed? Is it "people" in general (the standalone adjective takes the force of an unstated noun)? Well it is certainly "all" something. Could there be a more precise referent for "all?" Actually, it is the word "ransom" that should supply the referent for "all" in this case. It is a full and complete ransom, and those for whom it is paid out will surely see the benefit of it.
How, indeed, could it be a ransom for those who are never ransomed by it? Yes, some interpreters do, in fact, teach that God has paid a great ransom; cancelling the debt of every last sinner in the whole world. One wonders does that include the betrayal by Judas, the "son of perdition"? Ultimately and sadly, this view leads to the Arminian-like conclusion that the destiny of the ungodly is finally their "choice," rather than the judicial fiat of God, John 3:18. Did God release every last sinner from their condemnation, and yet they've chosen to remain estranged from His yearning heart? Since He is God, His must be in eternally unfulfilled yearning! Clearly this is a blasphemous conclusion, but necessitated by the erroneous view that God has ransomed the damned. And, it makes some great portion of Christ's shed blood unavailing, not securing the release of some assumed ransomed souls.
For consistency's sake, therefore, we must understand that "all" (1 Tim 2:6) is defined by those who are ransomed; and not "those who are ransomed" being defined by the "all" word which gets extended in the error to every human being besides the Savior himself.
Also it is a text about men at prayer; men who do not know the secret things of God, but who do know that God has a general love for his creation and for man as his image bearer, which is expressed elsewhere in similar fashion. For instance, John 3:16. And men should go to prayer, in general terms (and for specific souls); knowing that God has not revealed any specific exclusions regarding his offer of mercy. Whatever God has decreed shall certainly come to pass and whatever does not occur is not according to the will of God’s decree. Thus, all men are not saved, but only those in whose stead Christ has been given as a ransom.
“. . . not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance” ( 2 Pet. 3:9 ).
2 Peter 3:9 refers to the elect who will come to repentance and who must first be gathered in before the world perishes. It also makes mention of the command and the declaration of the gospel which commands everyone who hears it to repent, speaking of both God’s pleasure and displeasure relative to repentance or the lack of it.As demonstrated, there simply is no Scripture you can appeal to in support of indefinite atonement. Our Lord says that His blood is poured out for “many,” not for “all” (Matthew 26:28). Robert, was Jesus in error when He said "many" and not "all"? I think not. Rather, Our Lord's atonement was definite, not indefinite; that is, the atonement was for a known, specific amount of persons (John 6:37; John 6:39; John 10:29; John 17:11-12; John 17:9; John 17:22; John 18:9) that no man can number from among the peoples of the world (Rev. 7:9).
AMR
For example,
The word “all” does not refer to all men who have existed, do exist, and will exist, but rather to all those who are under discussion in each individual text. You want to proof-text your view with no support from the context of the proof-texting you are attempting.
No doubt when I provide the correct answer for this verse, you will hop to another. So, to save time let's look at the usual suspects you appeal to for your indefinite atonement error.
“For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that He might have mercy upon all” ( Rom. 11:32 )
Romans 11:32 refers to the rejection and the restoration or repentance of the Jewish nation.
“Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life” ( Rom. 5:18 )
Romans 5:18 speaks of all those who are in Christ, who will be the recipients of justification unto life.
“For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive” ( 1 Cor. 15:22 )
1 Corinthians 15:22 speaks of all who will be made alive in Christ.
“And that He died for all . . .” ( 2 Cor. 5:15 )
2 Corinthians 5:15 makes mention of all believers who have died to sin and are partakers of spiritual life.
“Who will have all men to be saved.. . . Who gave Himself a ransom for all . . .”( 1 Tim. 2:4,6 )
In 1 Timothy 2:4–6 , the reference is to all sorts of men, which is evident in 1 Tim 2:2 —all sorts of men rather than all men will come to the knowledge of the truth. One antecedent to "all men" in 1 Tim 2:4 is the "all men" in 1 Tim 2:1, which plainly interpreted means "all kinds of men," as 1 Tim 2:2 elaborates by example: kings and all those in authority. So, one qualifier of "all" is already explicit in the text. With that in mind, it should be clear that the express "will of God" in 1 Tim 2:4 is a general, and not his specific electing-will-unto-salvation, which would be the case if this text were concerned to teach on election. Actually, the text is teaching the definiteness of Our Lord's atonement.
What does ὁ δοὺς ἑαυτὸν ἀντίλυτρον ὑπὲρ πάντων (1 Tim 2:6) mean? Who are the "all" that are ransomed? Is it "people" in general (the standalone adjective takes the force of an unstated noun)? Well it is certainly "all" something. Could there be a more precise referent for "all?" Actually, it is the word "ransom" that should supply the referent for "all" in this case. It is a full and complete ransom, and those for whom it is paid out will surely see the benefit of it.
How, indeed, could it be a ransom for those who are never ransomed by it? Yes, some interpreters do, in fact, teach that God has paid a great ransom; cancelling the debt of every last sinner in the whole world. One wonders does that include the betrayal by Judas, the "son of perdition"? Ultimately and sadly, this view leads to the Arminian-like conclusion that the destiny of the ungodly is finally their "choice," rather than the judicial fiat of God, John 3:18. Did God release every last sinner from their condemnation, and yet they've chosen to remain estranged from His yearning heart? Since He is God, His must be in eternally unfulfilled yearning! Clearly this is a blasphemous conclusion, but necessitated by the erroneous view that God has ransomed the damned. And, it makes some great portion of Christ's shed blood unavailing, not securing the release of some assumed ransomed souls.
For consistency's sake, therefore, we must understand that "all" (1 Tim 2:6) is defined by those who are ransomed; and not "those who are ransomed" being defined by the "all" word which gets extended in the error to every human being besides the Savior himself.
Also it is a text about men at prayer; men who do not know the secret things of God, but who do know that God has a general love for his creation and for man as his image bearer, which is expressed elsewhere in similar fashion. For instance, John 3:16. And men should go to prayer, in general terms (and for specific souls); knowing that God has not revealed any specific exclusions regarding his offer of mercy. Whatever God has decreed shall certainly come to pass and whatever does not occur is not according to the will of God’s decree. Thus, all men are not saved, but only those in whose stead Christ has been given as a ransom.
“. . . not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance” ( 2 Pet. 3:9 ).
2 Peter 3:9 refers to the elect who will come to repentance and who must first be gathered in before the world perishes. It also makes mention of the command and the declaration of the gospel which commands everyone who hears it to repent, speaking of both God’s pleasure and displeasure relative to repentance or the lack of it.As demonstrated, there simply is no Scripture you can appeal to in support of indefinite atonement. Our Lord says that His blood is poured out for “many,” not for “all” (Matthew 26:28). Robert, was Jesus in error when He said "many" and not "all"? I think not. Rather, Our Lord's atonement was definite, not indefinite; that is, the atonement was for a known, specific amount of persons (John 6:37; John 6:39; John 10:29; John 17:11-12; John 17:9; John 17:22; John 18:9) that no man can number from among the peoples of the world (Rev. 7:9).
AMR