A bias for rationality, expressed in reason, is no public sin. A bias without it is no virtue.Bias duly noted.
Now try the argument.
It does and will, though comparatively rarely given consideration of precedent. Anti-miscegenation laws were once upheld by the Court because, it reasoned, they applied to both whites and blacks.Does the SCOTUS have the authority to overrule (if that's the right term?) a previous SCOTUS's decision?