A bias for rationality, expressed in reason, is no public sin. A bias without it is no virtue.Bias duly noted.
Now try the argument.
It does and will, though comparatively rarely given consideration of precedent. Anti-miscegenation laws were once upheld by the Court because, it reasoned, they applied to both whites and blacks. It fell, but eighty something years later, in the 1960s.Does the SCOTUS have the authority to overrule (if that's the right term?) a previous SCOTUS's decision?