patman
Active member
Hi folks,
Here are three questions I have for fellow MAD and Open Theist YEC believers. I too belong to these beliefs, but I have a few things from the Bible that I wonder about. I would appreciate anyone who is studied in these areas to give me their insights on the following "questions" I have. I put my main questions in bold:
YEC and Vegetarians:
Where does the belief that no one ever ate meat, not even the animals?
Of course I know Adam brought on death, but even to the animals? I am not familiar with a verse that says animals never died pre fall.
Those who believe this say that God officially authorized the eating of animals by humans when before he did not... but since when did humans ever wait for God, or follow his rules? The people before the flood were supposed to be the worst in history... would they really honor a vegetarian diet? Furthermore there is enough bacteria designed for the purpose of eating dead animals... for me it begs the question, why would God create that unless animals would be dying?
I tend to think that the death Adam brought to us was only spiritual and only applied to beings with a spirit, i.e. humans... still, I submit the question above to you in hopes you can explain these "problems" to me.
MAD:
#1 One of the ways MAD unifies the NT is by dividing Pauls writings from the rest. Paul wrote to the gentiles and the others wrote to the Jews. This belief explains why John and the others discussed faith+works=salvation camp and Paul was faith only = salvation camp.
But I came across this passage from Peter recently:
It seems Paul was writing to the Jews too. Does that raise questions for anyone else? This passage almost breaks down that line of division between the two paths of salvation when Paul was writing to the Jews. The message of the two camps is so stark between the authors that they are evidence enough for MAD, but It leaves me wondering why Paul was doing ( I am struggling to express my concern here, so I'll leave it this and see if anyone else sees where I am going here and has an answer...)
#2 (I've asked before, but I still struggle to understand) Why is the law going to come back after the rapture?
Paul speaks so well on the benefits of Grace, how we are dead to the law and freed from it the same way a widow is free from the laws concerning adultery. I do not understand why God would put future Jews back under it.
I understand that the tribulation is for the Jews, and at one time being a jew meant having the law, but there were children of Abraham and Jacob before the law. Why couldn't the tribulation involve descendants of Abraham who are saved by grace minus works? I do not see a reason from scripture to fully believe that this component of MAD is a must. Anyone care to show me what I am missing here?
Here are three questions I have for fellow MAD and Open Theist YEC believers. I too belong to these beliefs, but I have a few things from the Bible that I wonder about. I would appreciate anyone who is studied in these areas to give me their insights on the following "questions" I have. I put my main questions in bold:
YEC and Vegetarians:
Where does the belief that no one ever ate meat, not even the animals?
Of course I know Adam brought on death, but even to the animals? I am not familiar with a verse that says animals never died pre fall.
Those who believe this say that God officially authorized the eating of animals by humans when before he did not... but since when did humans ever wait for God, or follow his rules? The people before the flood were supposed to be the worst in history... would they really honor a vegetarian diet? Furthermore there is enough bacteria designed for the purpose of eating dead animals... for me it begs the question, why would God create that unless animals would be dying?
I tend to think that the death Adam brought to us was only spiritual and only applied to beings with a spirit, i.e. humans... still, I submit the question above to you in hopes you can explain these "problems" to me.
MAD:
#1 One of the ways MAD unifies the NT is by dividing Pauls writings from the rest. Paul wrote to the gentiles and the others wrote to the Jews. This belief explains why John and the others discussed faith+works=salvation camp and Paul was faith only = salvation camp.
But I came across this passage from Peter recently:
NET 2 Peter 3:15-16
15) And regard the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as also our dear brother Paul wrote to you, according to the wisdom given to him, 16) speaking of these things in all his letters. Some things in these letters are hard to understand, things the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they also do to the rest of the scriptures.
It seems Paul was writing to the Jews too. Does that raise questions for anyone else? This passage almost breaks down that line of division between the two paths of salvation when Paul was writing to the Jews. The message of the two camps is so stark between the authors that they are evidence enough for MAD, but It leaves me wondering why Paul was doing ( I am struggling to express my concern here, so I'll leave it this and see if anyone else sees where I am going here and has an answer...)
#2 (I've asked before, but I still struggle to understand) Why is the law going to come back after the rapture?
Paul speaks so well on the benefits of Grace, how we are dead to the law and freed from it the same way a widow is free from the laws concerning adultery. I do not understand why God would put future Jews back under it.
I understand that the tribulation is for the Jews, and at one time being a jew meant having the law, but there were children of Abraham and Jacob before the law. Why couldn't the tribulation involve descendants of Abraham who are saved by grace minus works? I do not see a reason from scripture to fully believe that this component of MAD is a must. Anyone care to show me what I am missing here?
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