SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
No...I wasn't expecting to...I don't know any coherent reason why this matters to the OP's question.
Oh.
No...I wasn't expecting to...I don't know any coherent reason why this matters to the OP's question.
No...I wasn't expecting to...I don't know any coherent reason why this matters to the OP's question.
The Bible presents them as having literally happened. There is nothing in the accounts themselves to even suggest an allegorical or other nonliteral meaning. They happened, just as Christ literally died for all your sins and literally rose again for your justification. But you don't believe that either. If you did you wouldn't be engaged in most of the discussions you try to start.
I'm shocked at how stupid this post is
The irony...
IP: "The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant."
The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.
"Huh?"-the great Mayor of TOL
Yes sir, that's who we are dealing with, fella.
The New Covenant is eternal and therefore existed before the Old Covenant.
English words like "New" and "Old" have zero meaning these days!
I'm shocked at how stupid this post is Must.
The events of Christ are the best witnessed history of the period. That was really foolish.
Speaking on behalf of no other mid-Acts believer (so no one take this as "a MAD doctrine"), I believe Paul was telling his readers that even if there were some among them who may have heard and seen Christ during His exclusive ministry to Israel, no one could now know Him according to that ministry because Israel refused to repent and so blindly stumbled. Therefore, no one could know Him in that context any longer. It has not been continued or transferred to Gentiles in any sense; it had been deactivated by God Himself even while Paul had written those words and remains (for now) completely deactivated.
But the Good News is that it was superseded by better things: the progressive revelation through Paul of God's secret purposes of grace (Rom 16:25; Gal 1:12; Eph 3:8-9).
The point is, if Paul said even to those who might have known Him "according to the flesh" of His ministry to Israel (meaning, for us, according to the four Gospels and early Acts), then that inability to know Him thus HAS to go double for us today.
The old rallying cry of "Get back to the Gospels!" is not just backwards, it is rebellion against the revealed will of God and denies Christ as He has revealed Himself to us.
YOU CANNOT AND WILL NOT KNOW CHRIST THE WAY GOD DESIRES WITHOUT MAJORING ON THE PAULINE REVELATION. SCRIPTURALLY, THAT'S "WHERE IT'S AT." TO DIMINISH OR DISMISS PAUL'S REVELATION IS TO DISMISS CHRIST HIMSELF.
Did the LORD not ascend up to the 3rd heaven?
How you reckon he did that in flesh & blood? Flesh and bone.
Did the LORD not appear and disappear in his resurrected body? "Walk through walls"?
Can you do that?
That's pretty much a bullseye!
Only a fool would expect another christian in this life to do what Christ did resurrected. Sigh.
Only a fool would expect another christian in this life to do what Christ did resurrected. Sigh.
Why do you believe He walked through walls?
Perhaps 'materialized' is better. Jn 21.
"He was seen by x, y, and by nearly 500 at one time" I cor 15.
'He will return as he (just) left'. acts 1. He dis-appeared, so he will appear again.
Jn 20:19. He came and appeared in a room with locked doors. Again in v26.
Post less, study more.
"He was seen by x, y, and by nearly 500 at one time" I cor 15.
'He will return as he (just) left'. acts 1. He dis-appeared, so he will appear again.
Jn 20:19. He came and appeared in a room with locked doors. Again in v26.
Post less, study more.
Only a fool would expect another christian in this life to do what Christ did resurrected. Sigh.
Sigh
How do you know the account was intended to be taken literally?