SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Day of Christ.
ECT 2 Thess 2:1-2 proves the rapture theory wrong.
- Thread starter tetelestai
- Start date
(1 Thess 3:13 KJV) To the end he may stablish your hearts unblameable in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.
(1 Thess 4:15 KJV) For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
(1 Thess 5:23 KJV) And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.
(2 Thess 2:1) Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
As we see above, the Apostle Paul uses the phrase "the coming of the Lord" four times in his letters to the Thessalonians.
MAD claims that the phrase refers to the rapture 3 times, and the second coming 1 time in the above four verses.
Nothing could be further from the truth, and once again, MAD is proven false.
(1 Thess 4:15 KJV) For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
(1 Thess 5:23 KJV) And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.
(2 Thess 2:1) Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
As we see above, the Apostle Paul uses the phrase "the coming of the Lord" four times in his letters to the Thessalonians.
MAD claims that the phrase refers to the rapture 3 times, and the second coming 1 time in the above four verses.
Nothing could be further from the truth, and once again, MAD is proven false.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Context determines.
How is the Day of Christ equal to "the mystery of iniquity"?
You want us to believe that Paul used the phrase "The coming of the Lord" to the Thessalonians, but was describing two very different events?
That's crazy
I don't know how you can claim "The Day of the Lord" refers to the rapture in one verse, then a few verses later "The Day of the Lord" refers to the second coming of Christ, with a straight face.
Nowhere does Paul even suggest they are two separate events.
You're not sure which; are you? Thus "acording to" you is what you are once more actually asserting, Tel-a-lie.
You call that logic? Where does it say they knew he was still around before he wrote them?
No it doesn't. All it proves is what your illogic going in ended up concluding.
You have been applying this exact same illogic for years now; even though it and its every assertion was shot full of holes years ago on.
As your utter humiliation the link below so clearly makes obvious, despite your opponent's having been off in a very miniscule sense here and there (two of several being his assertion about those stones; another being his assertion he alone could prove you so wrong in so many areas) the brother did his job that well those five years ago; proving your very perspective itself is the problem. All you spew from it; par for the course.
Yet here you are, all these years later, still attempting to bait one and all into your proving them...wrong :chuckle:
http://theologyonline.com/showthrea...tai-Questions-the-Mid-Acts-View-Cannot-Answer
Last edited:
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
:chuckle:
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
No it isn't. Context determines.
There is only ONE "the Day of the Lord" according to Paul.
It's you guys who claim the phrase refers to two different events.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Day of Christ
Why would Paul use the exact same phrase to describe two completely different events?
The Thessalonians were already confused, and thought they missed the day, and now you want us to believe that Paul used the same phrase to describe two different days.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Because context determines.
(1 Thess 3:13 KJV) To the end he may stablish your hearts unblameable in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.
(2 Thess 2:1) Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
Is "The Coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" the same event in the above two verses?
That's where you're wrong.
The context makes it crystal clear that Paul was referring one event, not two.
If Paul was referring to two completely different events, he wouldn't have used the exact same phrase to describe them.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Why do you keep saying Day of the Lord instead of Day of Christ?
It's the same thing
(1 Thess 5:2 KJV) For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
"The Day of the Lord" and "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" are the same thing.
You're claiming "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" refers to two completely different events.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
:chuckle:
STP- two exact phrases refer to two events, Tet thinks I'm crazy
Tet- two different phrases refer to same event, Tet thinks he's smart
How is the day of the Lord (Prophecy) equal to the day of Christ (Mystery)?
In 2 Thess. 2:2 whether one looks at it as in the KJV (day of Christ) or as in Manuscript Evidence (day of the Lord in some); the issue is the same; they had been led to confuse the day of Christ as being the same as the day of the Lord.
Paul is reminding them he had taught them the signs of Daniel's 70th Week (day of the Lord).
Which week Paul taught had been interrupted, just as Hilston proved to you years ago, in the link below and to your utter humiliation, but which you have continued to gainsay to this very day because you have this thing for going into the wrong neighborhood to start endless nonsense with others who know you are just being a baiting, neurotic bufoon.
In your utter humiliation the link below so clearly makes obvious, despite your opponent's having been off in a very miniscule sense here and there (two of several being his assertion about those stones; another being his assertion he alone could prove you so wrong in so many areas) he did his job that well those five years ago; proving your very perspective itself is the problem. All you spew from it; par for the course.
Yet here you are, all these years later, still attempting to bait one and all into your proving them...wrong :chuckle:
http://theologyonline.com/showthrea...tai-Questions-the-Mid-Acts-View-Cannot-Answer
Last edited:
Correct, that's crazy
Not crazy.
Example:
(1 Chron 29:23 KJV) Then Solomon sat on the throne of the LORD as king instead of David his father, and prospered; and all Israel obeyed him.
(1 Kings 2:12 KJV) Then sat Solomon upon the throne of David his father; and his kingdom was established greatly.
Same throne, two different descriptions.
Now it's your turn.
Please show me two verses that use the exact same phrase to describe two completely different events?
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Context does not matter, I suppose.