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When I wrote in the OP, "Does anyone who is familiar with Maundy Thursday..." I should have written, "Does anyone who believes in Maundy Thursday...." Since you don't, this topic does not apply to you. As for the rest of your comments, I don't understand them.

I'm getting confused here. so let me try this: First let me say that this topic is based on the idea that a calendar day is defined as a period of time between sunsets. Thursday------------Friday-----------Saturday...

That's fine. Just that it's an issue for a different topic. Maybe you might start one.

Why are you bringing a midnight-to-midnight calendar day into the conversation when we are talking about a time line from 2000 years ago? BTW, you say that the Messiah was crucified on Thursday. But Maundy Thursday is defined as the day before a Friday crucifixion.

In your post #4 you said "The next day, after the night He was betrayed, He was put to death, on Friday. So, after the Thursday night that He was betrayed, and after Thursday daytime, and after Friday night time He was crucified at 9am?

And the OP is asking if it was during the beginning of Thursday or during the afternoon of Thursday.

I was counting back from 9am when He was crucified. So, you're saying that no part of Thursday was involved?

Which would be at least 27 hours after the Thursday betrayal.

So, that means that the betrayal took place sometime during the first 12 hours of Thursday followed by the 12 hours of daytime of Thursday?

Does anyone who is familiar with Maundy Thursday, the day during Holy Week which commemorates the washing of the feet and last supper of the Messiah with the apostles know what part of Thursday that this took place - during the night time at the beginning of Thursday, or during the daytime...

But why 3 days and 3 nights? Why not, let's say, 2 days and 2 nights?

Nick M, You have a question directed to you in post #7.

Only so far as scripture is silent about it being an obligation.

Sorry, I could swear that I did. The answer is no.

So, why did you reference Acts 20:7 if it wasn't as support for a specialness of the 1st day of the week?

So, do you think they were satisfied with the sign that the Messiah gave them - i.e., that they could use the sign to trap Him? And why do you think He used "3 days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth" for the sign?

I asked "what" not "why".

What do you think the Pharisees were looking for when they asked for a sign?

So, you're saying that the need to observe the feast of tabernacles ended at the start of this dispensation and will begin again at the end of it. Seems odd, but ok.

How do you think He does that with every person on the globe while at the same time processing the large volume of prayers coming to Him every moment at the same time?