ECT WHY THERE IS ONLY ONE IP and 1P TODAY ?

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DAN P

Well-known member
Hi to all and today some say that there is only one GOSPEL for today !!

But those that believe in only one GOSPEL can not say what that ONE GOSPEL is and NEVER say how you are saved under there GOOD NEWS or it preaching for TODAY !

In Rom 1:1 we read that Paul in Gal 1:15 that Paul was SEPARATED / APHORIZO me from my mothers womb and having called me by His CHARIS /GRACE /FAVOR !!

Here is the reading of Rom 1:1 , Paul a slave of Christ Jesus , a called apostle HAVING BEEN SEPARATED for God's Gospel !!

#1 , The Greek word SEPARATED / APHORIZO is in the Greek PERFECT TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and a PARTICIPLE !!

#2 , The word separated has at least 3 meaning !!

#3 , Separated can be translated by BOUNDARIES or LIMITED or SEPARATED !

#4 Then then means that Paul was LIMITED to only preach God's Gospel and not the Kingdom Gospel or BAPTISM with Water , OR the New Covenant but only Gods Gospel !!

#5 The PASSIVE VOICES means that action was produced by God Himself !!

#6 The PARTICIPLE is the word HAVING which seem to always end in ING !

#7 The Perfect tense than means since Paul salvation , Paul was than LIMITED to only preach dispensationalism , Eph 3:2 and Col 1:25 and 26 !!

So you all can then see that today there is ONL,Y 1P and 1P for today !!

dan p
 
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I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi to all and today some say that there is only one GOSPEL for today !!

But those that believe in only one GOSPEL can not say what that ONE GOSPEL is and NEVER say how you are saved under there GOOD NEWS or it preaching for TODAY !

In Rom 1:1 we read that Paul in Gal 1:15 that Paul was SEPARATED / APHORIZO me from my mothers womb and having called me by His CHARIS /GRACE /FAVOR !!

Here is the reading of Rom 1:1 , Paul a slave of Christ Jesus , a called apostle HAVING BEEN SEPARATED for God's Gospel !!

#1 , The Greek word SEPARATED / APHORIZO is in the Greek PERFECT TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and a PARTICIPLE !!

#2 , The word separated has at least 3 meaning !!

#3 , Separated can be translated by BOUNDARIES or LIMITED or SEPARATED !

#4 Then then means that Paul was LIMITED to only preach God's Gospel and not the Kingdom Gospel or BAPTISM with Water , OR the New Covenant but lonly Gods Gospel !!

#5 The PASSIVE VOICES means that action was produced by God Himself !!

#6 The PARTICIPLE is the word HAVING which seem to always end in ING !

#7 The Perfect tense than means since Paul salvation , Paul was than LIMITED to only preach dispensationalism , Eph 3:2 and Col 1:25 and 26 !!

So you all can then see that today there is ONL,Y 1P and 1P for today !!

dan p
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God was in Christ dealing with the debt of mankind's sins. As proof of his success, God resurrected him to the 'throne of David' that was awaiting him in honor of what he accomplished. All the earth should pay homage.
 
steko

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Interplanner said:
God was in Christ dealing with the debt of mankind's sins. As proof of his success, God resurrected him to the 'throne of David' that was awaiting him in honor of what he accomplished. All the earth should pay homage.
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'The throne of David' is defined by the overwhelming testimony of Scripture.
You have no right or justification to pervert it.

2Sa_3:10 To translate the kingdom from the house of Saul, and to set up the throne of David over Israel and over Judah, from Dan even to Beersheba.


1Ki_2:12 Then sat Solomon upon the throne of David his father; and his kingdom was established greatly.

1Ki_2:24 Now therefore, as the LORD liveth, which hath established me, and set me on the throne of David my father, and who hath made me an house, as he promised, Adonijah shall be put to death this day.

1Ki_2:45 And king Solomon shall be blessed, and the throne of David shall be established before the LORD for ever.


1Ki_5:5 And, behold, I purpose to build an house unto the name of the LORD my God, as the LORD spake unto David my father, saying, Thy son, whom I will set upon thy throne in thy room, he shall build an house unto my name.

Psa_132:11 The LORD hath sworn in truth unto David; he will not turn from it; Of the fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne.

Isa_9:7 Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.


Isa_16:5 And in mercy shall the throne be established: and he shall sit upon it in truth in the tabernacle of David, judging, and seeking judgment, and hasting righteousness.

Luk_1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:


Mat 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
 
D

DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
God was in Christ dealing with the debt of mankind's sins. As proof of his success, God resurrected him to the 'throne of David' that was awaiting him in honor of what he accomplished. All the earth should pay homage.
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Hi and you will NOT comment on Rom 1:1 , why not ??

Rom 1:1 reads straight up and clear , but not by you ??

dan p
 
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SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
God was in Christ dealing with the debt of mankind's sins. As proof of his success, God resurrected him to the 'throne of David' that was awaiting him in honor of what he accomplished. All the earth should pay homage.
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Peter says he was raised on sit on David's throne.
Paul says he was raised for our justification.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
SaulToPaul said:
Peter says he was raised on sit on David's throne.
Paul says he was raised for our justification.
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That's right and it is one and the same. There is no land promise to go back to.

That's why in Romans (written mainly to Jewish Christians coming back to Rome after the eviction of Acts 18:3 was over) the only reference to David is that Christ is descended from him, and that David knew the blessedness of imputed righteousness (ie, the blessedness of not having sin imputed to your account).

btw, the causal term used in Rom 4:25 is not for (to make happen) our justification; it is 'because we were now justified'. The work done was already accomplished. "It is finished."
 
D

DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
God was in Christ dealing with the debt of mankind's sins. As proof of his success, God resurrected him to the 'throne of David' that was awaiting him in honor of what he accomplished. All the earth should pay homage.
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Hi and where is your proof that Jesus was RESURRECUTED TO the Throne of David , as I need to see that verse , and why do you never gives vers as your PROOF ??

DAN P
 
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Danoh

New member
SaulToPaul said:
Things like this are said when one spends too much time reading commentaries, and not enough time in the Holy Bible.


Romans 11:13 (KJV)
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In fairness, his point there does come closer to your own; at times skewed understanding of who Romans was written to, etc.
 
D

DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
That's right and it is one and the same. There is no land promise to go back to.

That's why in Romans (written mainly to Jewish Christians coming back to Rome after the eviction of Acts 18:3 was over) the only reference to David is that Christ is descended from him, and that David knew the blessedness of imputed righteousness (ie, the blessedness of not having sin imputed to your account).

btw, the causal term used in Rom 4:25 is not for (to make happen) our justification; it is 'because we were now justified'. The work done was already accomplished. "It is finished."
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Hi and what does " it is FINISHED " mean in John 19:30 ??

dan p
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi and what does " it is FINISHED " mean in John 19:30 ??

dan p
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That the work of redemption (paying for someone else's sins) was done. So being raised because that was done, means that the raising was an honor, an award. The award was the enthronement. That is what David foresaw in acts 2's quote of David in Ps 16. It is not a foreseeing of another monarchy or civic kingdom. Nothing in the passage would take it that direction.

Better trans: it is accomplished.
 
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northwye

New member
"That's why in Romans (written mainly to Jewish Christians coming back to Rome after the eviction of Acts 18:3 was over) the only reference to David is that Christ is descended from him, and that David knew the blessedness of imputed righteousness (ie, the blessedness of not having sin imputed to your account)."

If Romans was written mainly for Jewish Christians returning to Rome after the eviction in about 49 A.D. under Claudius, then the topic of interest in Romans is Paul's desire to show that Christian Jews and Christian non-Jews are united spiritually and no longer divided into two houses of God. "For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us." Ephesians 2: 14

Before the eviction of 49 AD, the Jews in Rome met mostly in their synagogues, but when they returned later the Christians still in Rome were almost all non-Jews, and probably many Christian Jews began meeting with Gentile Christians, and there probably was conflict between the two groups of Christians. Paul is concerned about this lack of unity. Paul is not one to promote the middle wall of separation between elect Jews and elect non-Jews.

In Romans 10: 12 Paul states this spiritual unity in a very explicit way, "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him."

And - if somehow Christian Zionists could understand Romans 2: 28-29,Paul is dealing with the same spiritual unity between the Jewish elect and the non-Jewish elect, by saying in a subtle way that both who have Christ in them are real or inward "Jews" and that there is no more real inward Jew by the flesh.

"For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29. But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God."

Then in Romans 9: 27 Paul quotes Isaiah 10: 22-23 on the remnant, which is laying the groundwork for what he says in Romans 11: 1-5, which again the Christian Zionists do not fully understand. Paul is saying that those who began the New Covenant were Jews. But he is saying that this group who began the New Covenant were small in number, and that the multitude of Jews are those in Romans 11: 17-20 who were broken off.

The Jews by the flesh and not of the Spirit, which is implied in Romans 2: 28-29, were the multitude and were broken off because of unbelief. But there is a spiritual unity between the Jews who accepted Christ and the non-Jews who accepted Christ.

In Romans 9: 6-8 Paul is showing that not all the physical seed from Abraham are now the children of God, but the seed of the promise are the elect and children of God, the Jews who accepted Christ.

And in Romans 11: 26 the Christian Zionists certainly do not understand that "And so all Israel shall be saved..." refers to the spiritual unity between the people of the physical bloodline who accepted Christ and were born again and the non-Jews who did the same, calling both Israel. Calling both groups Israel violates the fundamental middle wall of partition between those of the physical Bloodline and those not of the physical bloodline of dispensationalism. This is where that theology goes off into false doctrine and another Gospel.
 
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Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
northwye said:
And in Romans 11: 26 the Christian Zionists certainly do not understand that "And so all Israel shall be saved..." refers to the spiritual unity between the people of the physical bloodline were accepted Christ and were born again and the non-Jews who did the same, calling both Israel.
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NONSENSE!

"For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins" (Ro.11:25-27).​

Paul puts the time when all Israel will be saved in the future. He also ties the salvation to a covenant which will take away their sins.

In the following passage we see an OT prophecy which speaks of both these things:

"Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more" (Jer.31:31-34).​

We can see that the "fathers" of those who will belong to the house of Israel and the house of Judah in the future are those who broke the LORD's covenant. It was the physical descendants of Israel who did that. Therefore, since their fathers are the physical descendants of Israel then all those of both houses will also be the physical descendants of Israel.

And all of them, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, will have their sins forgiven and be saved. Since this has never happened in the past we know for a fact that the fulfillment of this prophecy remains in the future.

This confirms that when Paul uses the word "Israel" at Romans 11:26 he is referring to the physical descendants of Israel. So we can see the the accusers of those within the MAD camp are in reality the ones who pervert the Scriptures found in the NT on this subject in order to support their preconceived ideas.

Your theology perverts Paul's words at Romans 11:26 and also perverts the meaning of the passage at Jeremiah 31:31-34!
 
Nick M

Nick M

Plymouth Colonist
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
steko said:
'The throne of David' is defined by the overwhelming testimony of Scripture.
You have no right or justification to pervert it.
Click to expand...

You forgot Acts 2, when Peter speaking on behalf of God said the Lord Jesus Christ was raised up to sit upon the throne of David.
 
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