The LORD God Said: "The Man Has Become Like One of Us"

[Jerry Shugart]

Here we read that the LORD GOD said that "the man has become like one of Us":

"Then the LORD God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil..." (Gen.3:22).​

The man Adam became like One of the Godhead, and it is not difficult to determine the identity of that "One." It is the Son of Man who came down from heaven:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

The Lord Jesus descended from heaven when He was the "Son of Man." That can only mean that before he came down to earth He was in heaven as the "Son of Man."

The following verse also makes it plain that the Lord Jesus was in heaven as the "Son of Man" before He came to the earth:

"What and if ye shall see the son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

Let us look at the way that the Unitarians understand the meaning of the term "Son of Man" in regard to the Lord Jesus. They say:

"He did not 'toot his own horn,' but instead called himself 'the son of man,' which, in the Aramaic language he spoke, meant 'a man'" (biblicalunitarian.com).​

So the Lord Jesus was in heaven as a "Man" before He came down to earth. And that explains the following words:

"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness" (Gen.1:26).​

We know that the very "nature" of the Lord Jesus is that of being fully God and fully Man so since His nature never changes He has always been both God and Man:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

 

[Ben Masada]

The Lord God Said the Man Has Become Like One of Us.

Since HaShem is of an absolute Oneness, "like one of us" must be an application of majestic plurality.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Since HaShem is of an absolute Oneness, "like one of us" must be an application of majestic plurality.

You obviously are not aware of the concept of "composite unity," a concept which is illustrated by what we read here:

"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother and shall cleave to his wife, and they two shall be one flesh" (Gen.2:24; LXX).​

Paul speaks about these words and says that the idea is a "mystery" (Eph.5:31-32), meaning that this concept is above the understanding of our finite minds.

Besides that, where in the Bible do we find such a things as "majestic plurality"?

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Where are all the anti-Trinitarians?

I guess that they have no answer!

 

[Ben Masada]

You obviously are not aware of the concept of "composite unity," a concept which is illustrated by what we read here: "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother and shall cleave to his wife, and they two shall be one flesh" (Gen.2:24; LXX). Paul speaks about these words and says that the idea is a "mystery" (Eph.5:31-32), meaning that this concept is above the understanding of our finite minds. Besides that, where in the Bible do we find such a things as "majestic plurality"?

Obviously, you are not aware of the concept of "absolute Oneness." What you are doing with Genesis 2:24 is looking for similarities between HaShem and man. Again, in absolute terms, we cannot compare any thing whatsoever with HaShem if you read Isaiah 46:5.

 

[jamie]

Where are all the anti-Trinitarians?

Anyone who believes in one God is unitarian by definition. The term "unitarian" comes from the Latin word for unity. So regardless of the number of persons who comprise the one God, whether it is one person or millions of persons the concept of one God is unitarian.

A tangential issue is the number of persons considered to be one God, but that is a separate issue over numbers.

The trinity premise is simply a strawman people use to argue about the number of persons within the context of the one God which is the basis of monotheism. Monotheism is the believe in one God, not three gods. The number of persons constituting the one God is totally irrelevant.

Irrelevant means it doesn't matter, it's just a stupid argument that does not effect the essence of God.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Anyone who believes in one God is unitarian by definition. The term "unitarian" comes from the Latin word for unity. So regardless of the number of persons who comprise the one God, whether it is one person or millions of persons the concept of one God is unitarian.

Down through time the majority of people who call themselves "Unitarians" argue against the idea that the Lord Jesus is God and that the Holy Spirit is God. Therefore, these people can rightly be described as anti-Trinitarians.

 

[jamie]

Down through time the majority of people who call themselves "Unitarians" argue against the idea that the Lord Jesus is God and that the Holy Spirit is God. Therefore, these people can rightly be described as anti-Trinitarians.

Down through time the majority of people were polytheistic. Akhenaten caught all kinds of flack for insisting there was one god, the sun god.

The sun day was the god's day of worship. Joseph married the daughter of a Heliopolis priest and it is ingrained in "christian" culture as the day to worship.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Obviously, you are not aware of the concept of "absolute Oneness."

In the Bible one of the names of the One God is 'Elohiym, and that name is a "plural" noun. That name is used in the following verses:

"And God ('Elohiym) said, Let us make man according to our image and likeness...And God ('Elohiym) made man, according to the image of God he made him" (Gen.1:26,27).​

We can see the same thing here:

"Then the LORD God ('Elohiym) said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil..." (Gen.3:22).​

Let us look at this verse which is found in the OT:

"In hope of eternal life which God, who cannot lie, promised before time began" (Titus 1:2).​

Before time began God made a promise. To whom could have God made that promise? It had to be made among the different members of the Trinity because there was no one else to whom to make the promise.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Down through time the majority of people were polytheistic.

Why are you unable to follow what I said? Again, here is what I said and it has nothing at all to do with what you said:

Down through time the majority of people who call themselves "Unitarians" argue against the idea that the Lord Jesus is God and that the Holy Spirit is God. Therefore, these people can rightly be described as anti-Trinitarians.​

The people to whom you refer have nothing at all to do with the people "who call themselves Unitarians."

 

[jamie]

Why are you unable to follow what I said? Again, here is what I said and it has nothing at all to do with what you said:

Down through time the majority of people who call themselves "Unitarians" argue against the idea that the Lord Jesus is God and that the Holy Spirit is God. Therefore, these people can rightly be described as anti-Trinitarians.​

The people to whom you refer have nothing at all to do with the people "who call themselves Unitarians."

Yes, it is a tool that Satan has used quite well to cause division among believers. God is not a pie and those who slice him up are just playing Satan's game.

I don't care to play Satan's game. Too bad you do.

No matter how many slices you make of God, each piece is God and is unified with all the other pieces.

You are playing a futile game.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

No matter how many slices you make of God, each piece is God and is unified with all the other pieces.

Could you please give me your opinion on the meaning of these verses?:

In the Bible one of the names of the One God is 'Elohiym, and that name is a "plural" noun. That name is used in the following verses:

"And God ('Elohiym) said, Let us make man according to our image and likeness...And God ('Elohiym) made man, according to the image of God he made him" (Gen.1:26,27).​

We can see the same thing here:

"Then the LORD God ('Elohiym) said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil..." (Gen.3:22).​

In your opinion why do we see a plural pronoun in these verses?

Thanks!

 

[jamie]

In your opinion why do we see a plural pronoun in these verses?

I agree with John that in the beginning was the Father and the Word.

The Word was with God and was God.

Someone had to become mortal to die for sin.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

I agree with John that in the beginning was the Father and the Word.

The Word was with God and was God.

Someone had to become mortal to die for sin.

Good! Therefore, we can understand that the WORD is indeed the Lord Jesus:

"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth" (Jn.1:14).​

Thanks!

 

[iamaberean]

Could you please give me your opinion on the meaning of these verses?:

In the Bible one of the names of the One God is 'Elohiym, and that name is a "plural" noun. That name is used in the following verses:

"And God ('Elohiym) said, Let us make man according to our image and likeness...And God ('Elohiym) made man, according to the image of God he made him" (Gen.1:26,27).​

In Hebrew 'elohiym' is plural unless qualified. When it is not qualified it is speaking of spirits, or angels. So, in the first part, God is speaking to the angels when he said 'let us' and then Elohiym is qualified when it says 'according to the image of God he (singular), the one God, made him'.

We can see the same thing here:

"Then the LORD God ('Elohiym) said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil..." (Gen.3:22).​

In your opinion why do we see a plural pronoun in these verses?

Thanks!

It didn't say that man became God, just that man now understood the difference between good and evil

Here are a couple of scriptures where 'God' is qualified by the word 'LORD'.
Deu 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:

Mar 12:29 And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:

Joh 4:24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

Jesus was a man, the Redeemer, with the fullness of God residing in him.

Col 2:6 As ye have therefore received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk ye in him:
Col 2:7 Rooted and built up in him, and stablished in the faith, as ye have been taught, abounding therein with thanksgiving.
Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

 

[iamaberean]

Could you please give me your opinion on the meaning of these verses?:

In the Bible one of the names of the One God is 'Elohiym, and that name is a "plural" noun. That name is used in the following verses:

"And God ('Elohiym) said, Let us make man according to our image and likeness...And God ('Elohiym) made man, according to the image of God he made him" (Gen.1:26,27).​

In Hebrew 'elohiym' is plural unless qualified. When it is not qualified it is speaking of spirits, or angels. So, in the first part, God is speaking to the angels when he said 'let us' and then Elohiym is qualified when it says 'according to the image of God he (singular), the one God, made him'.

We can see the same thing here:

"Then the LORD God ('Elohiym) said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil..." (Gen.3:22).​

In your opinion why do we see a plural pronoun in these verses?


It didn't say that man became God, just that man now understood the difference between good and evil

Here are a couple of scriptures where 'God' is qualified by the word 'LORD'.
Deu 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:

Mar 12:29 And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:

Joh 4:24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

Jesus was a man, the Redeemer, with the fullness of God residing in him.

Col 2:6 As ye have therefore received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk ye in him:
Col 2:7 Rooted and built up in him, and stablished in the faith, as ye have been taught, abounding therein with thanksgiving.
Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Jesus was a man, the Redeemer, with the fullness of God residing in him.

Then the Apostle Thomas was in error when He said the following to the Lord Jesus:

"And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God" (Jn.20:28).​

 

[iamaberean]

Then the Apostle Thomas was in error when He said the following to the Lord Jesus:

"And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God" (Jn.20:28).​

Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

1Ti 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

1Jn 4:2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
1Jn 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.

Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

You did not answer my question. Was Thomas in error when he called the Lord Jesus "God"?

 

[iamaberean]

You did not answer my question. Was Thomas in error when he called the Lord Jesus "God"?

Absolutely not! Jesus is God, the one and only.
Mat 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
Mat 4:6 And saith unto him, If thou be the Son of God, cast thyself down: for it is written, He shall give his angels charge concerning thee: and in their hands they shall bear thee up, lest at any time thou dash thy foot against a stone.
Mat 4:7 Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.
Gen 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.