Originally posted by LightSon
If you accept the premise that the phrase "sons of God", as translated in the OT, refers to a single class of beings, then some inferences can be made. The phrase is found in the OT 5 times.
Job 38:4-7 states that these "sons of God" were present when the foundation of the Earth was laid. If you hold that "sons of God" are human, then you have a problem, since God hadn't created mankind as yet.
Job 1:6 shows that "sons of God" were aligned with Satan as he came before God to get permission to plague Job. Why are they mentioned in this text? An inference needs to be made. My inference is that these were Satan's henchmen. If you reject this, then who were they and why are they mentioned as specifically coming with Satan? The burden then falls on you, and I can’t even come up with an alternate reason.
I'm not sure I can prove that "sons of God" are fallen angels, but the preponderance of the texts strongly suggests it to me.
Gen 6 SEEMS to suggest a link between giants being produced and the cohabitation of "sons of God" with "daughters of men". Also, these giants and the presentation of "sons of God" are very closely aligned with wickedness that God identified and His ensuing action to destroy man. All these concepts are wrapped together in the context of Gen 6. Why is that? The notion that these were "righteous" persons doesn't hold up, since wickedness immediately ensues.
Fold in a couple of related passages.
1 Peter 3:19,20 makes reference to Christ, By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
That reference shows strong support by way of corroboration, IMO.
What about these “spirits in prison”.
For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment 2 Peter 2:4
And
And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Jude 6
I hold to Sibbie’s view that Satan was moving to corrupt the messianic line.
And it should be noted that this OT phrase, thus translated “sons of God” has no correlation to the NT usage of the same. The OT “sons of God” were present at the foundation of the world; we, as NT “sons of God” were not. I don’t think I’ve proven anything, but do think there is strong support for this position.
