2MuchCoffeeMan
New member
First, I don't have a bible handy to confirm what I'm thinking right now and my phone is down at home (where my bibles are) so that I can ask this question from there. I'm at work you see, but don't worry. I'm on my coffee break
Okay, if I recall correctly what Christ said concerning divorce in the book of Matthew (?), then fornication is the only sufficient cause for divorce. Firstly, am I right about that?
So, assuming a) that this is true and b) adultery is a death penalty crime then how is divorce even possible? I'm obviously missing something here.
Can anyone illuminate my ignorance?
Okay, if I recall correctly what Christ said concerning divorce in the book of Matthew (?), then fornication is the only sufficient cause for divorce. Firstly, am I right about that?
So, assuming a) that this is true and b) adultery is a death penalty crime then how is divorce even possible? I'm obviously missing something here.
Can anyone illuminate my ignorance?