Jehovah's Witness Bible proves that Christ is God

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
In the same translation (NWT) we read this about God:

"And the One seated on the throne said: “Look! I am making all things new.” Also he says: “Write, for these words are faithful and true.” And he said to me: “They have come to pass! I am the Alʹpha and the O·meʹga, the beginning and the end. To anyone thirsting I will give from the spring of the water of life free. Anyone conquering will inherit these things, and I will be his God and he will be my son"
(Rev.21:5-7; NWT).​

Since there can only be One who is said to be the "Alʹpha and the O·meʹga, the beginning and the end" we can know that Jesus Christ is God because He says this:

"‘The one who bears witness of these things says, ‘Yes, I am coming quickly.’”+ “Amen! Come, Lord Jesus.”Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to repay each one according to his work. I am the Alʹpha and the O·meʹga, the first and the last, the beginning and the end"
(Rev.22:12-13; NWT).​

John certainly understood that it was the Lord Jesus speaking there, as witnessed by his response here:

“The one who bears witness of these things says, ‘Yes, I am coming quickly.’” “Amen! Come, Lord Jesus
(Rev.22:20; NWT).​
 
Last edited:

musterion

Well-known member
[MENTION=13959]meshak[/MENTION] and [MENTION=17493]KingdomRose[/MENTION] will pretend they can't see this thread.
 

KingdomRose

New member
Hebrews 1:8



That's the Watchtower's New World translation.

KJ:

The KJV is pretty bad in this instance (as in many more). Heb.1:8 quotes Psalm 45:6. The Hebrew-English Tanakh, from the Jewish Publication Society, reads thusly:

"Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity."


It does not translate the original Hebrew as "your throne, O God." So when Paul was quoting from this verse in Psalms, he was not saying that the Messiah was God. The Messiah's (Jesus') throne was divine, yes---divine meaning "of, relating to, or proceeding directly FROM God"---and this throne would be firmly backed up, or, supported by, God.

The very next verse shows an honest person that the Son could not be God. It says:

"You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, YOUR GOD, chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers." (Psalm 45:8, according to the Tanakh; Hebrews 1:9, KJV)

Tell me....does God have "peers"? No! But the subject of these verses does. Never mind the fact that even the KJV states that THE SON HAS A GOD.



Did you bother to research any of this? Do you have any explanations for your acceptance of a sloppy translation that contradicts itself in the very next verse?

The meaning of what the Tanakh actually says is accepted as a possibility by the New Revised Standard Version & Today's English Version in their footnotes. The Holman Christian Standard Bible also understands the correct translation:

"But to the Son: Your throne, God, is forever and ever, and the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of justice....God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of joy..."

The Son never has to wonder about the length of his kingdom because God is there to support it forever.


In fact, to some translators, "God is your throne" is the accepted rendering, meaning that it is God [the Father] who is actually "the throne," or, the Source of power and authority. So either way it is understood (that God IS the throne, or that God backs up the Son's throne) it means the same thing, and the Son is obviously not God.

"The NRSV, TEV, and NWT have done the right thing by informing their readers that there are two ways the verse can and has been translated; both translations are possible...but which translation is more PROBABLE? First, on the basis of linguistics, ho theos is more likely to mean 'God,' as it does hundreds of times throughout the N.T., than 'O God,' a meaning it has in only three other places in the N.T. ...Moreover, there is no other way to say 'God is your throne' than the way Hebrews 1:8 reads....We must conclude that the more probable translation is 'God is your throne,' the translation found in the NWT and in the footnotes of the NRSV and TEV....If this verse were quoted in the N.T. in reference to anyone else, the translators would not have hesitated to translate it as 'God is your throne.' It seems likely that it is only because most translations were made by people who already believe that Jesus is God that the less probable way of translating this verse has been preferred." (Truth in Translation, BeDuhn, pp.97-101)
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
The KJV is pretty bad in this instance (as in many more). Heb.1:8 quotes Psalm 45:6. The Hebrew-English Tanakh, from the Jewish Publication Society, reads thusly:

"Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity."

Here is what we read in the Greek version of the OT:

"Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a sceptre of righteousness"
(Ps.45:6; LXX).​

The very next verse shows an honest person that the Son could not be God. It says:

"You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, YOUR GOD, chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers." (Psalm 45:8, according to the Tanakh; Hebrews 1:9, KJV)

Tell me....does God have "peers"? No! But the subject of these verses does. Never mind the fact that even the KJV states that THE SON HAS A GOD.

Let us look at this passage:

"Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross"
(Phil.2:5-8).​

Before the Lord Jesus was made in the likeness of man He was in the form of God. And being made like man "in all things" He too had a God. When He took on flesh He had a God because God rules over all His creation:

"Thine, O LORD is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the victory, and the majesty: for all that is in the heaven and in the earth is thine; thine is the kingdom, O LORD, and thou art exalted as head above all" (1 Chron.29:11).​

Since the Lord Jesus is fully God and fully man then it is not surprising that the author of Hebrews wold write this:

"Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows" (Heb.1:9).​

I cannot see this is any other way because I cannot believe that the author is referring to more than one God at Hebrews 1:9.
 
Top