Then why did Paul baptize and continue to if he was sent not to?
That verse in 1 Cor. 1 is taken out of context and used without any proof to back it up that Paul didn't baptize people. Paul was sent to preach the gospel because one has to believe before they can be baptized. Baptism is a response to the gospel and can be perfromed by any believer. That's why it was important for Paul to preach so the believers would want to be baptized.
Honestly, this going back and forth; first one person's sound byte, followed by the other's, is a waste of time.
Each person is basing their sound byte on a whole slew of ideas that together form the actual basis of their sound byte.
To expect anyone to pierce through all that basis via a sound byte here and there is fool's gold.
I post well aware of that.
There is much more to Paul's intended sense in 1 Cor. 1's "sent me not to baptize" then his own seeming sound byte.
His statements, as with anyone else's, are based on an entire theology; itself comprised of many interconnected doctrines.
Round and round we shall each go, as a result.
It was why I offered you those two pdfs way back when - the hope you might read them in their entirety and by that, actually know where we are coming from.
For, arrogant as this might come off, we do know where other systems are coming from.
Mid-Acts results in said knowing.
Again, I am fully aware that may come off as arrogant. Its not meant to; that's just been our consistent experience.
Apologies if that offends.