musterion
Well-known member
Here's the situation. Your company hired an employee who recently "switched genders." She has had her name legally changed to a decidedly male name, dresses as a male, etc.
The company says that a person's legal name is their legal name so they must be addressed as such.
Let's say you're willing to go that far with this; wrong or not the law is the law, and you need to work. So you agree to refer to the person by the legalized name (or maybe you'd refuse even that, you tell me) but that's as close to affirming anything about this as you're willing to get.
Here's where the trouble really starts.
One of your duties is to put things in writing, some of which unavoidably refers at length to employees. You do not want to call a biological woman "he" or "him," and the company's policy on THIS point is not yet clear . . . but you know that once it's noticed (and it will be) that you're avoiding this, the person in question will complain that the "correct" pronouns are being deliberately avoided, which equals harassment, bigotry, lawsuits, etc.
At this point, the foundational issue of free speech vs compelled speech will kick in. In today's madhouse society you cannot know how this is going to go, if it goes south. Which it's likely to do if you stand on principles your company does not/cannot afford to share.
What would you do?
Would you figure that since you've already agreed to call them by their now-legal male name, you may as well call her "him"?
Would you draw the line at using what you know is the biologically incorrect pronoun, and refuse to do so?
I posted a hypothetical like this about a year ago re: a person who asked to be called a name belonging to someone of the opposite sex but had no legal change in place. This hypothetical is different because the legal name change is already in place.
The company says that a person's legal name is their legal name so they must be addressed as such.
Let's say you're willing to go that far with this; wrong or not the law is the law, and you need to work. So you agree to refer to the person by the legalized name (or maybe you'd refuse even that, you tell me) but that's as close to affirming anything about this as you're willing to get.
Here's where the trouble really starts.
One of your duties is to put things in writing, some of which unavoidably refers at length to employees. You do not want to call a biological woman "he" or "him," and the company's policy on THIS point is not yet clear . . . but you know that once it's noticed (and it will be) that you're avoiding this, the person in question will complain that the "correct" pronouns are being deliberately avoided, which equals harassment, bigotry, lawsuits, etc.
At this point, the foundational issue of free speech vs compelled speech will kick in. In today's madhouse society you cannot know how this is going to go, if it goes south. Which it's likely to do if you stand on principles your company does not/cannot afford to share.
What would you do?
Would you figure that since you've already agreed to call them by their now-legal male name, you may as well call her "him"?
Would you draw the line at using what you know is the biologically incorrect pronoun, and refuse to do so?
I posted a hypothetical like this about a year ago re: a person who asked to be called a name belonging to someone of the opposite sex but had no legal change in place. This hypothetical is different because the legal name change is already in place.