God's Infallible Knowledge

Ask Mr. Religion

☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) &#9
Gold Subscriber
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
God’s knowledge is that perfection of God whereby He, in an entirely unique manner, knows Himself and all things possible and actual in one eternal and most simple act.

We distinguish between God’s necessary knowledge and His free knowledge. Necessary knowledge is the knowledge which God has of Himself and of all things possible, a knowledge resting on the consciousness of His omnipotence. The free knowledge of God is the knowledge which He has of all things actual, that is, of things that existed in the past, that exist in the present, or that will exist in the future. It is founded on God's infinite knowledge of His own all-comprehensive and unchangeable eternal purpose (God's decree), and is called free knowledge, because it is determined by a concurrent act of God's will.

In other words, God's decree establishes what He knows about actualities. Some call this knowledge "foreknowledge", without carefully qualifying what they mean. Actually foreknowledge is not knowledge that God knows before something.

God knows actualities because He has ordained (decreed). In the ordination resides the certainty of what God knows about all things actual.

In Scripture, when we encounter "foreknowledge" it actually means something more than just mere factual knowledge, rather it means "to know" in much like the marital sense of intimacy, as in Adam knew Eve and she bore him children. God's foreknowledge, properly used, is actually God's setting His preferences upon another, God's love before time. For example, see Ex. 33:17; Deut. 9:24; Hos. 8:4; Amos 3:2; Matt. 7:23; John 10:14; 1 Cor. 8:3; 2 Tim. 2:19. In fact, foreknowledge is never used in Scripture in connection with events or actions; instead, it always has reference to persons. It is persons God is said to "foreknow," not the actions of those persons. See Acts 2:23; Romans 8:29-30; Romans 11:2; 1 Peter 1:2.

If God were to "peek" down the corridors of time, per Arminianism/Romanism, to "know", then God's knowledge is dependent, contingent. God's knowledge then is something outside of Himself, contrary to the attributes of an independent, omniscient being.

God's decree is not the proximate cause of what His creatures will choose to do based upon their liberty of spontaneity. In fact, it is God that has decreed that they actually possess this liberty. Out of this God decreed liberty springs the creature's own willing, choosing, and doing, for they alone are the proximate causes of what they so do within their liberty of spontaneity.

As the some of the previously cited verses teach, God’s foreknowledge is not causative, rather, something else lies behind it antecedently, and that something is God's own sovereign decree. Our Lord was "delivered by the (1) determinate counsel and (2) foreknowledge of God." (Acts 2:23). As I noted above, God's "counsel" (decree) is the ground of His foreknowledge. Likewise in Romans 8:29. That verse opens with the word "for," which signals to us to look back to what immediately precedes. What, then, does the previous verse say? It says this: "all things work together for good to them. . . .who are the called according to His purpose." Hence, God’s foreknowledge is based upon His purpose or decree (see also Psalm 2:7).

Given the Scriptural focus of foreknowledge upon an intimate preference upon persons, we can say God "foreknows" because He has elected. This rightly removes the ground or cause of election from outside the creature, and places it within God’s own sovereign will. God purposed in Himself to elect a certain people, not because of anything good in them or from them, either actual or foreseen, but solely out of His own mere pleasure. Hence the wording in the WCF.

Let's say I were to grant, for the sake of the argument, the Arminian/Romanist view that God "peeked ahead" and that this is a "foreknowledge" that some people would believe in Christ and be saved, and others would not believe in Christ and perish in their sins. This would still establish the Reformed doctrine of predestination. Why? Well, with this "foreknowledge", God still chose to create the world, so that the salvation of some and damnation of others manifestly rests on God's choice. The Arminian and Romanist arguments from "foreknowledge" actually accomplishes nothing. Rather these arguments only push the issue of divine choice back another step.

Highly recommended viewing:
http://www.ligonier.org/learn/conferences/orlando_2004_national_conference/omniscience-of-god/

AMR
 
Top