Does God approve of abortion in certain cases?

[genuineoriginal]

I am anti-abortion for any and all reasons, including rape and incest, but noticed something in the Bible that causes me to question whether there is one circumstance where abortion is permitted or even approved of by God.

In Numbers 5:11-31 a priest gives "bitter waters" to a woman when her husband becomes jealous and accuses her of having sex with another man.

Numbers 5:27-28 27 And when he hath made her to drink the water, then it shall come to pass, that, if she be defiled, and have done trespass against her husband, that the water that causeth the curse shall enter into her, and become bitter, and her belly shall swell, and her thigh shall rot: and the woman shall be a curse among her people. 28 And if the woman be not defiled, but be clean; then she shall be free, and shall conceive seed.​

The "bitter waters" seem to be some kind of abortifactant that cause the woman to miscarry any baby that resulted from the adultery and leaves her infertile if she is pregnant when she drinks it.

Another set of verses where God shows that the death of a child in the womb is God's will comes in 2 Samuel 12:13-19 where God took the life of the son of King David and Bathsheba that was conceived in adultery.

Does this mean that God approves of abortion in the instance of children conceived in adultery?

 

[Bright Raven]

No.

Proverbs 6:16-19New International Version (NIV)

16 There are six things the Lord hates,
seven that are detestable to him:
17 haughty eyes,
a lying tongue,
hands that shed innocent blood,
18 a heart that devises wicked schemes,
feet that are quick to rush into evil,
19 a false witness who pours out lies
and a person who stirs up conflict in the community.

 

[theophilus]

I am anti-abortion for any and all reasons, including rape and incest, but noticed something in the Bible that causes me to question whether there is one circumstance where abortion is permitted or even approved of by God.

In Numbers 5:11-31 a priest gives "bitter waters" to a woman when her husband becomes jealous and accuses her of having sex with another man.

Numbers 5:27-28 27 And when he hath made her to drink the water, then it shall come to pass, that, if she be defiled, and have done trespass against her husband, that the water that causeth the curse shall enter into her, and become bitter, and her belly shall swell, and her thigh shall rot: and the woman shall be a curse among her people. 28 And if the woman be not defiled, but be clean; then she shall be free, and shall conceive seed.​

The "bitter waters" seem to be some kind of abortifactant that cause the woman to miscarry any baby that resulted from the adultery and leaves her infertile if she is pregnant when she drinks it.

Another set of verses where God shows that the death of a child in the womb is God's will comes in 2 Samuel 12:13-19 where God took the life of the son of King David and Bathsheba that was conceived in adultery.

Does this mean that God approves of abortion in the instance of children conceived in adultery?

The bitter waters were given to the wife of a jealous husband, by the priest, to prove her honesty or infidelity, through God, to the satisfaction of the husband. They were not for abortion. IOW - they were a way to prove guilt or innocence...NOT for abortion.

David and Bathsheba's baby was NOT aborted...the child was ill. God allowed the child to die to drive David to repentance for his sin.

God NEVER condones abortion.

 

[jamie]

In the lineage of Jesus, Tamar had a baby as a result of incest with her father-in-law.

So Judah acknowledged them and said, “She has been more righteous than I because I did not give her to Shelah my son.”

And he never knew her again. (Genesis 38:26 NKJV)​

 

[genuineoriginal]

In the lineage of Jesus, Tamar had a baby as a result of incest with her father-in-law.

So Judah acknowledged them and said, “She has been more righteous than I because I did not give her to Shelah my son.”

And he never knew her again. (Genesis 38:26 NKJV)​

True, but there is nothing in the Bible that even hints that abortion in the case of incest is acceptable.

The verses I posted in the OP appear to suggest that abortion in the case of adultery is (or was) acceptable.

 

[genuineoriginal]

The bitter waters were given to the wife of a jealous husband, by the priest, to prove her honesty or infidelity, through God, to the satisfaction of the husband. They were not for abortion. IOW - they were a way to prove guilt or innocence...NOT for abortion.

The bitter waters would affect a pregnant woman and not a woman that was not pregnant, thus proving that the pregnant woman was committing adultery and the husband's jealousy was justified.

 

[theophilus]

The bitter waters would affect a pregnant woman and not a woman that was not pregnant, thus proving that the pregnant woman was committing adultery and the husband's jealousy was justified.

The bitter waters would affect a lying woman proving that the husband's jealousy was justified. If she was telling the truth the waters would not affect her and her husband knew she was telling the truth.

 

[genuineoriginal]

The bitter waters would affect a lying woman proving that the husband's jealousy was justified. If she was telling the truth the waters would not affect her and her husband knew she was telling the truth.

Her pregnancy, causing a reaction to the bitter waters, proves that she is lying.

 

[patrick jane]

In the lineage of Jesus, Tamar had a baby as a result of incest with her father-in-law.

So Judah acknowledged them and said, “She has been more righteous than I because I did not give her to Shelah my son.”

And he never knew her again. (Genesis 38:26 NKJV)​

sex with an in-law is not incest

 

[jamie]

sex with an in-law is not incest

For Tamar it was adultery and Judah ordered her burned until he found he had sinned by not giving Tamar his son.

 

[quip]

Does this mean that God approves of abortion in the instance of children conceived in adultery?

The bodily death of the fetus remains incidental to the punishable transgression (against Him) that beget it.

God is even speciously pro-life.

 

[theophilus]

Her pregnancy, causing a reaction to the bitter waters, proves that she is lying.

Conversely the waters do not affect her if she is telling the truth.

An illustration, if you will wear my shoes for a bit:

I have had a very jealous, alcoholic husband who accused me of every evil deed under the sun. In this day and age I can only prove my innocence, in the face of an adultery accusation by a polygraph on Maury.

In the days of the bitter waters, it behooved a woman to submit to the this test to prove her innocence. Her witnesses were the waters themselves, the Priest and the God of Israel (the mouths of two or three witnesses).

A woman doesn't get pregnant EVERY time she has sex...so an adultery charge was not always based on the evidence of a pregnancy. She could be charged by the same hardness of heart that gave a man the right to divorce his wife.

Essentially, the bitter waters were NOT for the purpose of abortion. They were the divine manifestation of guilt or innocence for a man of Israel, with two or three witnesses, under the terms of the Law. Besides the which, if the woman were found guilty, not only would her belly swell and her thigh rot, she would also be stoned.

Begging the question...why couldn't men commit adultery until Jesus said, "if you have lusted after a woman in your heart you have committed adultery" and transgressed the Law (James). I don't recall the issue of male adultery (with another woman and not idolatry) addressed in the OT.

???

 

[genuineoriginal]

Conversely the waters do not affect her if she is telling the truth.

Yes.

A woman doesn't get pregnant EVERY time she has sex...so an adultery charge was not always based on the evidence of a pregnancy.

Without modern birth control, it was much more likely that an adulterous woman would be pregnant when given the bitter waters to drink than not pregnant.

Besides the which, if the woman were found guilty, not only would her belly swell and her thigh rot, she would also be stoned.

The Torah does not permit an adulterous woman to be stoned without the man she is accused of committing adultery with being stoned as well.

Begging the question...why couldn't men commit adultery until Jesus said, "if you have lusted after a woman in your heart you have committed adultery" and transgressed the Law (James). I don't recall the issue of male adultery (with another woman and not idolatry) addressed in the OT.

In the Bible, adultery refers to a man having sex with another man's wife (or conversely a married woman having sex with a man that is not her husband).

Leviticus 20:10 20 And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.​

 

[kmoney]

I am anti-abortion for any and all reasons, including rape and incest, but noticed something in the Bible that causes me to question whether there is one circumstance where abortion is permitted or even approved of by God.

In Numbers 5:11-31 a priest gives "bitter waters" to a woman when her husband becomes jealous and accuses her of having sex with another man.

Numbers 5:27-28 27 And when he hath made her to drink the water, then it shall come to pass, that, if she be defiled, and have done trespass against her husband, that the water that causeth the curse shall enter into her, and become bitter, and her belly shall swell, and her thigh shall rot: and the woman shall be a curse among her people. 28 And if the woman be not defiled, but be clean; then she shall be free, and shall conceive seed.​

The "bitter waters" seem to be some kind of abortifactant that cause the woman to miscarry any baby that resulted from the adultery and leaves her infertile if she is pregnant when she drinks it.

Another set of verses where God shows that the death of a child in the womb is God's will comes in 2 Samuel 12:13-19 where God took the life of the son of King David and Bathsheba that was conceived in adultery.

Does this mean that God approves of abortion in the instance of children conceived in adultery?

The death if the baby would be in the process of determining guilt. Even if you can say God condoned abortion in that scenario, it doesn't seem to have any application for us? :idunno: are you considering if abortion should be legal in cases of adultery for us?

 

[Rusha]

The death if the baby would be in the process of determining guilt. Even if you can say God condoned abortion in that scenario, it doesn't seem to have any application for us? :idunno: are you considering if abortion should be legal in cases of adultery for us?

I don't see that an unborn baby created from adultery would be any different than one created from rape or consensual sex.

The CHILD would still be innocent, and being prolife should always be about saving the life of an innocent, unborn baby.