2P2P admits its war on the Bible

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Interplanner

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Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
Yes, he should forget about the NT "interp" of the OT and realize that the Bible is a unit consisting of prophecy and mystery.

there it is folks. 2P2P heads from the 19th & 20th century must replace what Jesus taught for 40 days after the Res.

THAT is replacement theology, just like Gal 3:17 says.
 
patrick jane

patrick jane

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Interplanner said:
Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
Yes, he should forget about the NT "interp" of the OT and realize that the Bible is a unit consisting of prophecy and mystery.

there it is folks. 2P2P heads from the 19th & 20th century must replace what Jesus taught for 40 days after the Res.

THAT is replacement theology, just like Gal 3:17 says.
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Galatians 2:7 KJV -
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
patrick jane said:
Galatians 2:7 KJV -
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Do you know why the Greek language has a case system?

Anyway, one little misunderstood verse is no comparison for the actual meaning of 3:17. There is way too much involved in STP's refusal to go with the NT meaning for your little 2:7 to solve or make any difference.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
2P2P is very loyal to the Bible, provided you are talking about their way of reading the OT. If you are talking about how the NT reads the OT, you are called a pervert.
 
Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
2P2P is very loyal to the Bible, provided you are talking about their way of reading the OT. If you are talking about how the NT reads the OT, you are called a pervert.
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The meaning which MAD places on the OT prophecies is the same meaning understood by the Jews who first received that revelation from the LORD.

Your reading of the prophecies found in the OT are totally foreign to the understanding of those who first received that revelation.

According to your ideas the LORD was deceiving those Jews about what would happen in the future.

But what do you care?
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
The meaning which MAD places on the OT prophecies is the same meaning understood by the Jews who first received that revelation from the LORD.

Your reading of the prophecies found in the OT are totally foreign to the understanding of those who first received that revelation.

According to your ideas the LORD was deceiving those Jews about what would happen in the future.

But what do you care?
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"The understanding of those who first recieved it" does not guarantee a piece of snot, Jerry. Christ said Israel rejected all of its prophets.

What you don't care to do is the work of accepting what the NT says it means. It's so much better to you, STP and RD that YOU just read an OT passage and not bother with the NT comment on it. That's why nothing makes sense to you when you go read the normal meaning of the NT.

For ex., Acts 2:30. How many posts have you made diverging from the plain meaning that David saw the resurrection to his throne in Christ? That that's why 'God has made Jesus Lord and Christ' has so much punch 5 verses later? To Israel? Did I mention he was speaking to ISRAEL???
 
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Danoh

New member
SaulToPaul said:
Do you know "the Greek" better than the team of KJB translators?
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Yo neighbor, pass me that paintbrush - oh by the way - the same could be asked of you regarding their Early Modern (still then greatly evolving 17th Century, BRITTISH) English :D

It is NOT 6th Grade, North American "English."

Not beyond simple things like "Christ died for our sins" it's not :chuckle:
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
Do you know why the Greek language has a case system?

Anyway, one little misunderstood verse is no comparison for the actual meaning of 3:17. There is way too much involved in STP's refusal to go with the NT meaning for your little 2:7 to solve or make any difference.
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Hi and anyone can google and and learn what the Greeks are and how many !!

,Yoy seem to have a hard time with the Greek ARTICTE THE in Gal 2:7 and PJ nailed you and you did not explain it !!

dan p
 
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Danoh

New member
DAN P said:
Hi and anyone can google and and learn what the Greeks are and how many !!

,Yoy seem to have a hard time with the Greek ARTICTE THE in Gal 2:7 and PJ nailed you and you did not explain it !!

dan p
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The point made by someone else on another thread, still holds - the Greek alone, often falls short.

Likewise with the English alone.

In either case - a GREAT deal of time is required in the WHOLE of either; learning how each uses it's language structures towards its' communication of its' intended sense.

Both the Greek and the English in Scripture end up a culture all their own and with the many aspects of nuance that each their "world" is actually comprised of.

In the KJV, for example, its' very word structures, its' very punctuations; often greatly differ from how language structures and punctuation are used today.

I prefer it though, above all the others.

For what it is, and for its ever fascinating challenge to come and take a walk down its' endless marketplace; how it uses words, punctuation; etc.

It remains one fascinating world unto its own - as - it - should.
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
Danoh said:
The point made by someone else on another thread, still holds - the Greek alone, often falls short.

Likewise with the English alone.

In either case - a GREAT deal of time is required in the WHOLE of either; learning how each uses it's language structures towards its' communication of its' intended sense.

Both the Greek and the English in Scripture end up a culture all their own and with the many aspects of nuance that each their "world" is actually comprised of.

In the KJV, for example, its' very word structures, its' very punctuations; often greatly differ from how language structures and punctuation are used today.

I prefer it though, above all the others.

For what it is, and for its ever fascinating challenge to come and take a walk down its' endless marketplace; how it uses words, punctuation; etc.

It remains one fascinating world unto its own - as - it - should.
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Hi and I believe that the TENSES , VOICES AND MOODS are more important !!

To me , the hard part is the TRANSLITERATIONS and most Greek words have MORE than one meaning !!

The other one is knowing when the Greek ARTICLE THE is used , which INTERPLANTER is deficient in , like Gal 2:7 !!

dan p
 
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Danoh

New member
DAN P said:
Hi and I believe that the TENSES , VOICES AND MOODS are more important !!

To me , the hard part is the TRANSLITERATIONS and most Greek words have MORE than one meaning !!

The other one is knowing when the Greek ARTICLE THE is used , which INTERPLANTER is deficient in , like Gal 2:7 !!

dan p
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All that is often not enough.

And ANY word derives its meaning by how it is used by who, as to what, where, when, and why.

There is also how words are structured within a narrative, and also; the narrative itself.

Interplanner's problem is that his narrative is not Scripture's.

Thrown off by what appeared to him glaring errors due to his having remained wet behind the ears, all those years; at which point he abandoned Dispensationalism as off he traipsed to the la la land of endless books "about" for his answers.

Glaringly obvious to many but him; is his not being that familiar with Scripture from time in it iself.

Ol dodge ball university :chuckle:
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi and I believe that the TENSES , VOICES AND MOODS are more important !!

To me , the hard part is the TRANSLITERATIONS and most Greek words have MORE than one meaning !!

The other one is knowing when the Greek ARTICLE THE is used , which INTERPLANTER is deficient in , like Gal 2:7 !!

dan p
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Dan, it is the verb that explodes the 2P2P myth there not the article.
 
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Danoh

New member
Interplanner said:
Dan, it is the verb that explodes the 2P2P myth there not the article.
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Sorry but not even the verb accomodates your delusion - both preached the gospel of Christ.

But one preached Christ according to the revelation of the mystery kept secret til Paul; the other three according to what had been prophesied about Him (or according to prophesy).
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
Dan, it is the verb that explodes the 2P2P myth there not the article.
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Hi and since there are only 2 verbs in Gal 2:7 , one in the AORIST TENSE and the other in the PERFECT TENSE , give youR meaning of what you disagree with ??

There are 2 GREEK ARICLES here , say yes or NO !!

Paul's is called the THE GOSPEL of the UNCIRCUMCISION !!

Peter's reads THE CIRCUMCISION as the gospel , THE WORD GOSPEL is not in the Greek text !!

Lets have your answer !!~

dan p
 
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