ECT 1 Corinthians 8:6 (KJV)

[ok doser]

1Cor 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

kjv

what do you make of the following parallels?

one God/one Lord

of whom/by whom

we in him/we by him

i'm weak in eschatological historicity - what is the source of the passage? What language was originally used? What are the oldest extant examples? How good is the KJV translation?

 

[glorydaz]

what do you make of the following parallels?

one God/one Lord

of whom/by whom

we in him/we by him

i'm weak in eschatological historicity - what is the source of the passage? What language was originally used? What are the oldest extant examples? How good is the KJV translation?

Paul is clarifying the Shema to all Gentile and Jewish believers. Proving the Lord Jesus Christ is one with the Father. Lord and God.

Deuteronomy 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord:​

 

[andyc]

what do you make of the following parallels?

one God/one Lord

of whom/by whom

we in him/we by him

i'm weak in eschatological historicity - what is the source of the passage? What language was originally used? What are the oldest extant examples? How good is the KJV translation?

I can't speak of the academic credentials of the translators, but the the text is beautiful.
In Christ, man is raised to a heavenly standing. God is our Father, and Christ (as a man) is our Lord.
Unitarians love this verse because they do not interpret the relationship between God and man as a heavenly relationship. Instead of seeing man exalted in Christ, they prefer to see Christ demoted to a created being.

 

[genuineoriginal]

1 Corinthians 8:5-6 5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) 6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.​

I like the way that Paul says that it doesn't matter how many other gods and lords there may be, for us there is only one God and only one Lord.

 

[Truster]

what do you make of the following parallels?

one God/one Lord

of whom/by whom

we in him/we by him

i'm weak in eschatological historicity - what is the source of the passage? What language was originally used? What are the oldest extant examples? How good is the KJV translation?

This might be of help. Well worth considering the last line.

"For even if there are those who are worded, elohim,
whether in the heavens or in earth,
exactly as there are many elohim and many adoniym
6 — yet to us, one Elohim the Father,
by whom all is, and we in him;
— and one Adonay Yah Shua Messiah,
through whom all is and we through him.
7 Yet that knowledge is not in everyone:"